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The Atonement of the Messiah

What sacrifice is required for the forgiveness of man's sins?

  • Only the blood of a designated perfect human could atone for sin.

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BereanDAD2003

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The Atonement of the Messiah
Planned from the Foundation of the World

I have been feeling, lately, that there is an irreconcilable tension between the way I’ve understood the sin and guilt of man, the atonement of the Christ, and a just God’s ability to forgive sin. Let me write down all of the ideas:

1. People sin and God is offended.
2. God’s Forgiveness Trumps God’s Justice.
3. Messiah’s Atonement is Adequate

I. People Sin and God is Offended

At the risk of exposing a total lack of depth in my understanding of what the Scriptures are all about, I have to admit that there are things about the general way of looking at Christianity that completely baffle me. When I say, “the general way,†I mean Christianity as it typically is presented in the evangelical world all around me. I can say, happily or ignorantly, that I’ve never felt comfortable with the idea that someone, simply by virtue of being born, could inherit sin and the consequent wrath of God. A passage like Matthew 19:14 is enlightening in this regard: “Jesus said, "Let the little children come to me, and do not hinder them, for the kingdom of heaven belongs to such as these." When I think about kids and babies, I do not see culpability. All I see is their utter dependency on those larger forms hovering around them. Yes, they are very, very needy, and even insistent about those needs. But as far as knowing that there is right and wrong and choosing to engage in it in defiance of a just Godâ€â€I don’t see it. Nor do I see that the Scriptures teach it. Note a few points from Scripture that help us work out some sort of biblical theology about humankind’s responsibility for sin committed.



Jesus said, "If you were blind, you would not be guilty of sin; but now that you claim you can see, your guilt remains†(John 9:41). Jesus considered ignorance an adequate defense against remaining guilty.

Ezekiel wrote about God’s perspective about one person inheriting the sin of another. He said: “The soul who sins is the one who will die. The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son. The righteousness of the righteous man will be credited to him, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against him†(Ezekiel 18:20). No one, by the reality of birth takes on the sins of those who came before him. We each stand on our own.

Paul wrote:

Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinnedâ€â€for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who was a pattern of the one to come (Romans 5:12-14).

While there is a sense in which physical death entered into the world because of the sins of men, it wasn’t as if God were going to hold men accountable for a spiritual consequence for sin unless and until they actually committed it. Adam’s specific sin is the means by which death came into the world. In comparison, Paul points out that Jesus is a fulfillment of the pattern of Adam. In this sense, then, Jesus brings about grace in the same manner as Adam brought about death. Jesus is, then, a second sort of Adam, according to Paul. And “Consequently, just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men†(Romans 5:18). In explanation, then, one can say that Jesus’ sacrifice on the cross is the means by which all men can be saved in the same way that one can say that all men can expect condemnation if they sin. In this sense, then, all men are not saved (though accessing Christ’s sacrifice is available to save them) in the same way that all men are not condemned (though following Adam in sin is the means to become spiritually condemned). While Romans 5, due to its very precise wording by Paul, is a thornier problem requiring thought to unravel, the truth still seems obvious that it is a person’s individual responsibility that causes one to be responsible for personal sin.

To continue the evolution of my thinking about the Atonement of the Messiah, there initially seemed to be no escaping the idea that Jesus would not be born a sinner if, as the general evangelical community declared, a person, any person, is a sinner because he inherits such from Adam. The fact that he had even one human parent, then, seemed to be enough to result in him either being born a sinner as presumably was every descendant of Adam. Otherwise there was always the good old Catholic solution that Jesus’ mother was born without sin so that her son Jesus could be born without sin. This seemed inadequate when compared with a simpler (and a more biblical) solution. Such a miracle is unnecessary, especially if all people are born without sin and become culpable only when they choose to do what they come to know to be wrong. Again, as Jesus words it: “If you were blind, you would not be guilty of sin†(John 9:41).

As it was, Jesus, the Second Adam, chose not to sin while the First Adam willingly disobeyed God’s will for him. That’s theological enough as well as representative of the Jesus-who-could-be-tempted who we read about in Scripture. Keep in mind that while God cannot be tempted, man canâ€â€and Jesus was a man. James 1:13 says: “When tempted, no one should say, ‘God is tempting me.’ For God cannot be tempted by evil, nor does he tempt anyone.†Not only that, but it is most appropriate to compare Jesus’ existence on earth with that of everyone else who lived when he walked the earth and thereafter. Why? In order to destroy the devil: “Since the children have flesh and blood, he too shared in their humanity so that by his death he might destroy him who holds the power of death--that is, the devil†(Hebrews 2:14). This sharing was not partial as regards the nature of Jesus. Again why? Referring to the previous goal of destroying the devil we read: “For this reason he had to be made like his brothers in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people [Or “that he might turn aside God's wrath, taking away the sins of the peopleâ€Â] (NIV text and margin translations at Hebrews 2:17).

All of the above directly impacts the concept of how God dealt with man’s guilt before him. What I am trying to say is that no one is culpable for sin until he knows what sin is and chooses to do it.


II. God’s Forgiveness Trumps God’s Justice

I have always been disturbed by this statement: “God is love and he wants to forgive. But God must not violate his justice.†Why? because “the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life through Christ Jesus our Lord†(Romans 6:23). The two aspects of God’s nature were, then, set in opposition to one another, with justice trumping God’s fairness in some cosmic scheme of things. In books and sermons where such a point was made, there were frequently some emotional illustrative story like the one about a thief who stole, in one story, to provide for his starving family. The judge declared the man guilty and declared sentence (so many days in jail), then removed his judicial robes and declared that he himself, out of mercy, would serve the time.

Well, while such stories are very nice to hear, and bring tears to one’s eyes in emotional sermons, there is no judicial system where anything like this could ever happen. Punishment for crimes can be probated on contingency of good behavior for a designated period of time; judges have prerogatives and discretion about how severe retribution for crimes have to be in a given case; various crimes to be prosecuted can be variously named so that a potential punishment is essentially negotiated in advance (e.g. someone is killed. The District Attorney can prosecute for either manslaughter or for murder resulting in a sentence, upon conviction, of time to be served as opposed to the death penalty). All of these illustrations are very much not in line with any biblical picture of the way God has revealed truth about sin, punishment, or forgiveness.

These are some things to consider: First, one has to deal with the fact that God has, on occasion completely forgiven people for willful infractions against the law that he has revealed. I think, for example, about the Israelites’ disobedience to the law of Moses regarding specific details in keeping the Passover. In 2 Chronicles 30, Hezekiah, king of Judah invited all the Israelites to come to Jerusalem to celebrate the restored Passover. But we find that Hezekiah, his officials and everyone in Jerusalem had decided to celebrate the Passover in the second month of their calendar year since they “had not been able to celebrate it at the regular time because not enough priests had consecrated themselves and the people had not assembled in Jerusalem†(2 Chronicles 30:3). Of course the Legal Code given by Moses provided for the contingency of not celebrating it on the fourteenth day of the first month if people could not get ceremonially clean in time (Numbers 9:6-13). In the situation governed by Hezekiah, however, “most of the many people who came from Ephraim, Manasseh, Issachar and Zebulun had not purified themselves, yet they ate the Passover, contrary to what was written†(2 Chronicles 30:18a). What was the solution? Hezekiah prayed for the people, and “the LORD heard Hezekiah and healed the people.†(2 Chronicles 30:18b, 20).

Another illustration can be seen in the poetic maskil of Asaph which appears at Psalm 78:38-40. Speaking of God (and the thought is repeated several times in the Psalm) we find this description of God:

Yet he was merciful;
he forgave their iniquities
and did not destroy them.
Time after time he restrained his anger
and did not stir up his full wrath.
He remembered that they were but flesh,
a passing breeze that does not return.

How often they rebelled against him in the desert
and grieved him in the wasteland!

Furthermore, recall the case of David and the adultery that he committed with Bathsheba seeking to cover up the sin by having Uriah her husband, and leader in his personal bodyguard, murdered (2 Samuel 11). The Mosaic Code clearly outlawed the specific punishment for adultery: “'If a man commits adultery with another man's wife-with the wife of his neighbor-both the adulterer and the adulteress must be put to death†(Leviticus 20:10). There was no other provision for adultery in the Law of Moses. Capital punishment was the similar punishment for murder: “Do not accept a ransom for the life of a murderer, who deserves to die. He must surely be put to death†(Numbers 35:31). There was no other provision for murder in the Law of Moses. Yet upon David’s repentance for the crimes, Nathan, God’s prophet declares: “The LORD has taken away your sin. You are not going to die†(2 Samuel 12:13). In this case, there were consequences for the sin; the child that Bathsheba conceived for this sexual sin with David was going to die (2 Samuel 12:14). But this had nothing to do with the standards and personal punishment that had been revealed for murder.

Second (First was that God has, on occasion completely forgiven people for willful infractions against the law that he has revealed), given what I’ve just pointed out, it might be very presumptuous to assume that God deals with sin in a way that makes him tie his own hands. I am challenging the misunderstanding of God that makes his justice trump his forgiveness especially when the evidence shows that “our God is in heaven and he does whatever he wants†(Psalm 115:3) according to a wisdom that surpasses our attempts to explain what he has done and appears to us to be done through biblically arbitrary means. For example, on the basis of passages of Scripture like Romans 3:25-26: “God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunishedâ€â€he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.†The idea, not in the text, is that Jesus’ blood flows backward as well as forward, and that any forgiveness that appeared for people in the Old Testament was provided by God on the basis of the blood of the Messiah. With extreme caution should one say anything that would diminish the effectiveness of the sacrificial work of the Christ. But I would also say that it is very presumptuous to say that Christ has done this or that when such is not the case at all.

III. Messiah’s Atonement is Adequate

I have tried to look for a synthesis of the biblical evidence about God’s forgiveness as it, without a lot of explanation, presents itself. The Old Testament says that “the righteous will live by his faith†(Habakuk 2:4; cited by Paul in Galatians 3:11 and Hebrews 10:38). This is true despite the fact that the Law of Moses talks about blessings and curses to come to Israel relative to how the Jewish nation did or did not obey the Law (Deuteronomy 11:25-30; 30:1). But as I’ve tried to point out in this piece, from time to time God has dealt with his people in a way that seemed not to be as concerned with a strict adherence to the written code when it came to the people of faith. Note a few cogent points:

God’s ultimate purpose and plan for the world was not to regard the Jewish people per se. Paul reveals that God’s ultimate mystery (present explanation of a formerly held secret) is that there is a “mystery of Christ, which was not made known to men in other generations as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to God's holy apostles and prophets. This mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus.†(Ephesians 3:4b-6). God had a plan to combine Jew and Gentile together under a system, not one based on law, but one based on God’s promises in Christ. Another succinct summary describing the synthesis is the one appearing in Galatians 3:26-28. The Contemporary English Version renders it well:

All of you are God's children because of your faith in Christ Jesus. And when you were baptized, it was as though you had put on Christ in the same way you put on new clothes. Faith in Christ Jesus is what makes each of you equal with each other, whether you are a Jew or a Greek, a slave or a free person, a man or a woman. So if you belong to Christ, you are now part of Abraham's family, and you will be given what God has promised.

All of God’s children, then, are conglomerated in a faith system that shows no national regard, neither Jew nor Greek; no social distinction, neither slave nor free; no sexual differentiation, neither male nor female. Rather, as Paul explains it, we are “all one in Christ Jesus†“equal with each other†and designated children of Abraham. Some distinct things about the Abraham’s faith system are these:

1. The Faith of Abraham pre-dates the Law System under Moses.

2. The Faith system invades the legal system given under Moses.

I choose the strong term “invades†because I am trying to communicate this point strongly: Law is Trumped by Faith and the promises associated with it as far as the Scriptures are concerned. When I say the faith system invades the legal system, I draw upon examples like those I have given. I would be irresponsible not to mention Abraham, a fellow who is not without sin, having presented his own wife as someone the Egyptian Pharaoh could have had as his own (Genesis 12:10-20); having turned his head when his wife Sarah mistreated Hagar, who would be the mother of Ishmael Abraham’s firstborn (Genesis 16); and even having turned out Hagar and the teenager Ishmael into the desert (Genesis 21). King Asa of Judah didn’t completely get rid of the pagan high places in the kingdom, and even punished a prophet of the Lord who had tried to correct a period of unfaithfulness in Asa’s life. Yet he is said to have done “what was right in the eyes of the LORD , as his father David had done†(1 Kings 15:11) and to have had a heart that “was fully committed to the LORD all his life†(1 Kings 15:14; cf. 2 Chronicles 14:2; 15:17; 2 Chronicles 16:6-11). Faithfulness from God’s perspective, then, has not meant that one was legally perfect in doing all the will of God so much as it has meant seeking to stay on the right path and trying to have a good heart pleasing to God.

Additionally, when I say the faith system invades the legal system, I draw upon terminology, which speaks of the Mosaic Code as being “obsolete,†and “aging†and soon to disappear (from the chronological perspective of the author in Hebrews 11:13).

Furthermore, when I say the faith system invades the legal system, I draw upon terminology which speaks of the faith system as a New Covenant that God had with his people (Hebrews 8:8-13). God worked with Israel on the basis of a covenant relationship. But as we have seen, covenantal fidelity is not without accommodation to human frailty (e.g. Abraham, David, Asa, and others). What the book of Hebrews does, however, is to stress what Robert Hach has, I believe, correctly identified as relationship with the Messiah. God fulfills his promise to bless all nations in the seed of Abraham [cf. Genesis 18:17-19; 22:17-19; repeated by God to Abraham’s son Isaac in Genesis 26:3-5; see Galatians 3:7-9], the Messiah's faith must take the place of the law of Moses in the individual lives and the collective life of God’s people (Hach 85). Paul talks about the “faith of Christ†in several passages. I cite the King James Version which brings out Paul’s attention given to the Greek form of the terminology:

1. Paul speaks of “the righteousness of God which is by the faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe†(Romans 3:22). He says that this righteousness is something that is “apart from the Law†in v. 21.

2. Paul says that we are justified by the faith of Christ and not by works of the Law (Galatians 2:16).

3. Paul says, “I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me†(Galatians 2:20).

4. Paul speaks about our hope in receiving the promises of God (mainly tied up in this passage with forgiveness from sin) and given to us by the faith of Christ when we believe or have faith in Christ (Galatians 3:21-23).

5. Paul speaks of how he desired to be “found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith†(Philippians 3:9).

Also, when I say the faith system invades the legal system, I draw upon terminology which speaks of being justified or found righteous by God--not on the basis of the works that we do, but rather on the basis of the relationship that is integral and, dare I say “mystical,†in Christ. Jesus prayed to his Father in John 17. He said, “Now this is eternal life, that they may know you, the only true God and Jesus the Messiah, whom you have sent†(John 17:3). He asks that believers would be “one†in the sense that he was “one†with the Father: “I pray . . . that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me†(John 17:20, 21). Ultimately all of this is tied up in the foundational presupposition behind the way God has said he would deal with the Messianic dynasty, for instance in 2 Samuel 7:12-16 (compare with Psalm 89). A careful reading of that passage will show that God had chosen to prove faithful to his “son†even if he didn’t live perfectly:

2 Samuel 7
12 When your days are over and you rest with your fathers, I will raise up your offspring to succeed you, who will come from your own body, and I will establish his kingdom. 13 He is the one who will build a house for my Name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever. 14 I will be his father, and he will be my son. When he does wrong, I will punish him with the rod of men, with floggings inflicted by men. 15 But my love will never be taken away from him, as I took it away from Saul, whom I removed from before you. 16 Your house and your kingdom will endure forever befor your throne will be established forever.' "

While this is legitimately demonstrated in God’s willingness to stick with the Davidic dynasty when they were bad from time to time, occasionally punishing them by “the rod of man,†ultimately the final Super Messiah (Paul’s Son-of-God-in-Power appointed [Greek orizo] to be so by his resurrection from the dead (Romans 1:4) was all that his Son needed to be, having chosen not to sin, thus qualifying him for all that God had ever intended when the Plan was made up before the foundation of the world. Are we sinless? No. But are we “in Christ†or “in the Messiah� Yes. Our integral unity with him, expressed practically in our relationship with one another, is the bottom line reality of what it means to have come into relationship with Christ. His Atonement satisfies God, causes him to turn away from our sinfulness and declare us “right†or “righteous†because of our relationship with the Christ.

BereanDAD
 
Jesus was like his brothers in every way.

Jason said:
Questions: Was the blood of Jesus different then the blood of any other man?

Hebrews 2:14-18
14Since the children have flesh and blood, he too shared in their humanity so that by his death he might destroy him who holds the power of death--that is, the devil-- 15and free those who all their lives were held in slavery by their fear of death. 16For surely it is not angels he helps, but Abraham's descendants. 17For this reason he had to be made like his brothers in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for[6] the sins of the people. 18Because he himself suffered when he was tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.

This passage tends to make me think that Jesus had to have been capable of sin in order to meet the requirements of the law, namely, to earn the privilege of being the necessary spotless lamb from among the flock. Moses had said that they should look for a Prophet who was like himself: "The LORD your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among your own brothers. You must listen to him" (Deuteronomy 18:15), and of course this was the Messianic expectation of the people of Jesus' day (John 7:25ff, esp. vss. 40, 52).

In this sense, then, his blood, per se, was no different than the blood of others of the flock of God's people. By analogy (and I realize an analogy doesn't prove, it merely illustrates) the blood of any particular lamb culled out of the flocks of Israel for the passover sacrifice (or other sacrifices) wasn't any different from the blood of any one that was not chosen. That the lamb was spotless was the criteria, not that it had some sort of super blood. Jesus was spotless inasmuch as he had chosen not to sin, thus meeting the requirements of the law. Jesus asked a significant question in the context of the Messianic expectation, "Can any of you prove me guilty of sin? If I am telling the truth, why don't you believe me?" (John 8:46). The answer to his rhetorical question was "No."

His blood was the same as that of other humans, whom he was like in every way (No dual nature here!). His qualifications for perfection as sacrifice and high priest on our behalf was earned, resulting in his designation by God to be the atoning sacrifice.

BereanDAD
 
Re: Jesus was like his brothers in every way.

Double talkers:

1. Jesus became a man so that he could atone for us.

2. Jesus atoned for us because he was God.

Man created a problem; Man fixed the problem. God made it happen.

All the early fathers believe that Jesus atoned for our sins because of his humanity, not his divinity. Indeed, the Bible says so.

Besides, he was not divine by nature at that time anyway.

Nothing more than one more Trinitarian contrivance to keep people hooked into a false doctrine.
 
Actually it took God cming in the form of man to shed His blood. Not a perfect man and not the blood of God since God has not flesh and blood, but is spirit. He took on flesh in the person of the Son and shed His blood saving all who will come to Him.
 
Scripture Says God Took on Flesh to Shed Blood for Man? Nope

saved said:
Actually it took God cming in the form of man to shed His blood. Not a perfect man and not the blood of God since God has not flesh and blood, but is spirit. He took on flesh in the person of the Son and shed His blood saving all who will come to Him.

All that sounds very nice. It would be nicer if you would provide a Scripture to support these words.

BereanDAD
 
Re: Scripture Says God Took on Flesh to Shed Blood for Man?

BereanDAD2003 said:
saved said:
Actually it took God cming in the form of man to shed His blood. Not a perfect man and not the blood of God since God has not flesh and blood, but is spirit. He took on flesh in the person of the Son and shed His blood saving all who will come to Him.

All that sounds very nice. It would be nicer if you would provide a Scripture to support these words.

BereanDAD

Johm 1:1,14
 
John 1 How Would a Jew Have Seen it?

First of all, the passage does not say that Jesus was God. It says that “the Word†was God. The original Greek in the passage does not require that the Word (Greek LOGOS) must be a person. When John writes “In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God,†he had three opportunities to use the name of Jesus to clarify this point and end discussion forever.

But he doesn’t do this. Not only is that so, but he then chooses the ambiguous Greek word HOUTOS in verse 2, Literally “‘THIS ONE’ was in the beginning with God†(John 1:2). To read this verse and see the Logos as a PERSON is to make the same grammatical mistake that a Frenchman can make if he too strictly translates from his language into English and says, “The house, she is very beautiful.†While “house†may be a feminine word GRAMMATICALLY, by no means should we understand that the house is a person. Similarly, while “Logos†is a masculine word GRAMMATICALLY, this does not require us to translate that “he was with God in the beginning.â€Â

The LOGOS is a thing. That we have a limited the understanding of it, typically understanding it only as “Word†is unfortunate. The term carries many other possibilities for translation including, "Reason," "Plan," or "Expression." The reason I mention this is to suggest that John wasn’t saying anything that would have freaked out a thoughtful monotheistic Jew at the time. When he says that the LOGOS was in the beginning, was with God and was God is an artistic or philosophical way of saying that God had a plan from the very beginning of matters as concerns us.

The Jewish writer Philo of Alexandria wrote during Jesus’ lifetime and expressed many ideas relative to the Jewish way of thinking about things. He equates the LOGOS with God, but never had any pluralistic or even Trinitarian concepts of God. He writes, for instance, “Man was made a likeness and imitation of the Word, when the Divine Breath was breathed into his face.†(“On the Creation,†XLVIII: 139, Loeb Edition I, pp. 110-111). Man was made in the image of God, we know from the book of Genesis. Philo refers to God as LOGOS here in commenting on the same thing. He comments further: “ . . . [Man] has been made after the Image of God (Genesis 1:27), not however after the image of anything created . . . man’s soul having been made after the image of the Archetype, the Word (LOGOS) of the First Cause.†(“Noah’s Work as a Planter,†I:11-20, Loeb III, pp. 222-223).

The LOGOS is God. But it was understood to Jewish thinkers contemporary with the biblical writers as being compatible with their understanding of who God was. John can say the same thing in John 1:1 and have no concept of a plurality of persons when he says that the Word was in the beginning was with God and was God all at once..

To continue Philo has God speak like this: “I alone . . . sustained the Universe to rest firm and sure upon the Mighty Word, who is My viceroy.†(“On Dreams,†I:241, Loeb V, pp. 424-425). For those who were not able to see God’s supreme cause, God Himself, He manifests himself to them as His Angel, the Word: “For just as those who are unable to see the sun itself, see the gleam of the parahelion and take it for the sun, and take the halo round the moon for that luminary itself, so some regard the image of God, His Angel, the Word, as His very self.†(“On Dreams,†I:239, Loeb V, pp. 422-423).

No one sees Philo as using such language to express some concept of plurality in the godhead. He is merely artistically and philosophically expressing what any Shema-reciting Jew would say. John the Apostle should not necessarily be seen as doing anything less in John 1:1.

The concept is similarly found in the book of Proverbs where "Wisdom" is the name of the person who was present with God when he created the universe. The precise wording spoken by "Wisdom" is (NIV): " . . . when he marked out the foundations of the earth.Then I was the craftsman at his side" (Proverbs 8:12, 30).

I might be compelled to think that this means that God, according to the wisdom that was with him, laid the foundations of the earth. God's wisdom is an inherent part of him, just like my soul or my spirit is an inherent part of me. In this sense, then, Wisdom can be said to have created the universe or shared in its creation without meaning that any particular PERSON other than God made it because wisdom is personified. Christ, God's Word and Wisdom (the two are integrally linked in Jewish thought and writings), was "with" God as an idea. And in fact Christ is called God's power and God's wisdom (1 Corinthians 1:24).

Is this esoteric, out there, not the natural reading of the text? No. It is a THOUGHTFUL consideration of the Scripture, which is a quite adequate way of explaining a lot of difficult things that are to be found in Scripture. That this conjoining of Word and Wisdom is JEWISH, not GREEK philosophy, consider that God is often called Word in Jewish writings prior to New Testament times. John 1:1ff wasn't anything that a thoughtful Jew would have seen in his study of the commentaries and paraphrases of Hebrew Scripture. Yet the Jews were not anything but monotheistic in their outlook. In other words, they recognized the Word of God as meaning "God."

In John 1:3, then, it is by God’s Wisdom or Wordâ€â€Ã¢â‚¬Å“through IT [that] all things came to be and without IT not one thing came to be that came to be†(Stiff but literal translation). What we have to do is to try to see the passages like this one in ways that cause it to be understood in light of other passages. I am not suggesting anything unreasonable here.

The Jewish confession was, “Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah†(Deuteronomy 6:4). This was also Jesus’ confession in Mark 12:29. Or are we to understand that when he made this confession to a questioning fellow citizen of Israel and scribe:

“One of the teachers of the law came and heard them debating. Noticing that Jesus had given them a good answer, he asked him, "Of all the commandments, which is the most important?"

"The most important one," answered Jesus, "is this: 'Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one. Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength.' The second is this: 'Love your neighbor as yourself.' There is no commandment greater than these."

"Well said, teacher," the man replied. "You are right in saying that God is one and there is no other but him. To love him with all your heart, with all your understanding and with all your strength, and to love your neighbor as yourself is more important than all burnt offerings and sacrifices."

When Jesus saw that he had answered wisely, he said to him, "You are not far from the kingdom of God." And from then on no one dared ask him any more questions. (Mark 12:28-34).

When Jesus says this, are we to think that Jesus answered this honest man with his fingers crossed behind his back? Is he saying, “I know what I cryptically mean when I say our Great Confession? I mean that God is NOT one. I mean that I am God, and I’ll let you think that I mean the same monotheistic thing that YOU mean� This doesn’t fit the way Jesus behaved. He was apparently very capable of offending people at this time in his ministry. What would be the point in hiding his full intent on the meaning of his comment? He was saying enough as it was that could be considered blasphemous (Blasphemy didn’t involve just claiming to be God.)

When “the LOGOS becomes flesh in John 1:14,†God’s plan and purpose for man is personified. Jesus didn’t exist prior to his beginning as a man (I’m sure we will discuss this in due time. But now is the time to lay things out for general consideration). He comes to exist because of the power of God’s Spirit through the virgin birth, and he begins his life and ministry qualifying himself as the Second Adam to be the perfect sacrificeâ€â€the Lamb of God (John 1:29)â€â€to repair what was ruined for mankind in the garden of Eden by the First Adam. This proving period was as necessary as Adam’s (who blew it for all of us). Jesus was “tempted in every way, just s we are--yet was without sin†(Hebrews 4:15). Of course though Jesus, a man, WAS tempted, it is impossible for GOD to be tempted (James 1:15).

When John writes that the Word existed in the beginning we may responsibly understand him to mean that God existed in the beginning as every Jew, who was NOT understanding that idea in a Trinitarian way, understood it.

It was God's own Son, not God himself, who shed his blood. God is impassable. God cannot die. Acts 20:28.

BereanDAD
 
Jesus is just the name of the man God the son became. The word was what he was and he was God. Jesus was and is always God the creator.
 
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