brother Paul
Member
The Septuagint and the traditional Masoretic both disagree with today's CT versions but Sinaiticus and Vaticanus both agree with these earliest versions, so why do the post-Westcott/Hort translators ADD the word "son" in Exodus 11 and 12?
During the time of Hatsheput (1482 -1425 B.C.), her husband Thutmoses II (Moses Pharaoh), and her daughter (their first born, Neferure), both died leaving her (a woman), the Pharaoh of Egypt. Her step son (who was also her nephew by Thutmoses and another lesser wife) acted as co-regentduring this time. He became Pharaoh after her passing and made the empire great once again.
Now in this historical fact the Critics lauded about. “Look here” they exclaimed “the Pharoah’s first born was a girl not a boy…thus no firstborn son!” But where did they get that “firstborn son” thing? It is not in the Bible!!! Cecil B. DeMil?
Both the LXX and the Pre-JPS (traditional) Masoretic only say the firstborn (which Biblically means ‘the one which opens the womb’). In the case of Pharaoh Thutmoses II his first born was female and indeed his daughter passed right around the time the Bible gives for the Exodus.
1 Kings 6:5 “And it came to pass in the four hundred and eightieth year after the children of Israel were come out of the land of Egypt, in the fourth year of Solomon's reign over Israel, in the month Zif, which is the second month, that he began to build the house of the Lord.”
970-966 B.C. (Temple building begins) + 480 years = 1450-1446 B.C.
Other scholars have noted “In Psalm 136:15, we find that God “overthrew Pharaoh and his army in the Red Sea." The Hebrew word translated here as "overthrew" is na'ar, also found in Exodus 14:27. It does not mean "to drown" or "to toss or tumble about as in the water" as some have attempted to assert. It simply means "shook off" as is mentioned in the margins of many Bibles(seeBrown, Driver & Briggs Hebrew Lexicon). (Nehemiah 5:13 illustrates how na'ar should be translated: "Then I shook out the fold of my garment. . . .") Therefore, these verses simply say that God shook off the Egyptians, including Pharaoh, from their pursuit of the Israelites. These scriptures say nothing of who was drowned.
In Exodus 14:28, the waters cover "all the army of Pharaoh," but Pharaoh himself is not mentioned. Exodus 15:19 supports this: "For the horses of Pharaoh went with his chariots and his horsemen into the sea, and the LORD brought back the waters of the sea upon them." Naturally, the horses and horsemen of Egypt were considered to be Pharaoh's. But this verse does not say that Pharaoh's personal horse (or chariot), or that Pharaoh himself, drowned in the sea.
This is significant because the death of such an important person would almost certainly have been given special note in the Bible. The Old Testament contains many clear references to the deaths of enemy kings, most of them much less important than this pharaoh. Archaeology proves that Amenhotep II, if he is the Pharaoh of the Exodus, ruled for about 22 more years.”
Comments? Thought? Where do we get "son" from...I am actually asking...???
In His love
Brother Paul
During the time of Hatsheput (1482 -1425 B.C.), her husband Thutmoses II (Moses Pharaoh), and her daughter (their first born, Neferure), both died leaving her (a woman), the Pharaoh of Egypt. Her step son (who was also her nephew by Thutmoses and another lesser wife) acted as co-regentduring this time. He became Pharaoh after her passing and made the empire great once again.
Now in this historical fact the Critics lauded about. “Look here” they exclaimed “the Pharoah’s first born was a girl not a boy…thus no firstborn son!” But where did they get that “firstborn son” thing? It is not in the Bible!!! Cecil B. DeMil?
Both the LXX and the Pre-JPS (traditional) Masoretic only say the firstborn (which Biblically means ‘the one which opens the womb’). In the case of Pharaoh Thutmoses II his first born was female and indeed his daughter passed right around the time the Bible gives for the Exodus.
1 Kings 6:5 “And it came to pass in the four hundred and eightieth year after the children of Israel were come out of the land of Egypt, in the fourth year of Solomon's reign over Israel, in the month Zif, which is the second month, that he began to build the house of the Lord.”
970-966 B.C. (Temple building begins) + 480 years = 1450-1446 B.C.
Other scholars have noted “In Psalm 136:15, we find that God “overthrew Pharaoh and his army in the Red Sea." The Hebrew word translated here as "overthrew" is na'ar, also found in Exodus 14:27. It does not mean "to drown" or "to toss or tumble about as in the water" as some have attempted to assert. It simply means "shook off" as is mentioned in the margins of many Bibles(seeBrown, Driver & Briggs Hebrew Lexicon). (Nehemiah 5:13 illustrates how na'ar should be translated: "Then I shook out the fold of my garment. . . .") Therefore, these verses simply say that God shook off the Egyptians, including Pharaoh, from their pursuit of the Israelites. These scriptures say nothing of who was drowned.
In Exodus 14:28, the waters cover "all the army of Pharaoh," but Pharaoh himself is not mentioned. Exodus 15:19 supports this: "For the horses of Pharaoh went with his chariots and his horsemen into the sea, and the LORD brought back the waters of the sea upon them." Naturally, the horses and horsemen of Egypt were considered to be Pharaoh's. But this verse does not say that Pharaoh's personal horse (or chariot), or that Pharaoh himself, drowned in the sea.
This is significant because the death of such an important person would almost certainly have been given special note in the Bible. The Old Testament contains many clear references to the deaths of enemy kings, most of them much less important than this pharaoh. Archaeology proves that Amenhotep II, if he is the Pharaoh of the Exodus, ruled for about 22 more years.”
Comments? Thought? Where do we get "son" from...I am actually asking...???
In His love
Brother Paul
