The words "world" and "all"

[Dave...]

Do you believe that in the Bible, words like "all" and "world" and "every man" always mean every last single thing or person unless specifically limited (e.g. 1 John 3:3) OR do you recognize that sometimes in the Bible, words like "all" means "all kinds of" (1 Timothy 6:10) and "world" means Gentiles as opposed to Jews only (John 12:19-20) and "every man" means "every kind of man" (Acts 4:35/1 Corinthians 7:2) without any specific mention of a limitation?

Here are two examples that clearly show the words "all" and "world" don't necessarily carry the meaning of every last individual.

Example one...

1 John 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.

John 11:51 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, 52 and not for that nation only, but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad.
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1 John 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.

John 11:51 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, 52 and not for that nation only, but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad.

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1 John 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.

John 11:51 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, 52 and not for that nation only, but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad.

Another........

Luke 2:1 And it came to pass in those days that a decree went out from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be registered. 2 This census first took place while Quirinius was governing Syria. 3 So all went to be registered, everyone to his own city.

 

[Whatever]

I found this in the New Testament Greek Lexicon - NAS = Pas (the word "all" in English)
I think the "NAS" is New American Standard

Pas Definition
NAS Word Usage - Total: 1242
individually
each, every, any, all, the whole, everyone, all things, everything
collectively
some of all types

... "the whole world has gone after him" Did all the world go after Christ? "then went all Judea, and were baptized of him in Jordan."Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem, baptized in Jordan? "Ye are of God,little children", and the whole world lieth in the wicked one". Does the whole world there mean everybody? The words "world" and "all" are used in some seven or eight senses in Scripture, and it is very rarely the "all" means all persons, taken individually. The words are generally used to signify that Christ has redeemed some of all sorts-- some Jews, some Gentiles, some rich, some poor, and has not restricted His redemption to either Jew or Gentile

 

[electedbyHim]

This can be a huge study.

In the N.T. there are 168 verses and 203 uses of the word "world".

 

[Fastfredy0]

Aside: Dave... I can tell by your questions that your doctrinal foundation is strong. Thanks for the questions to keep things interesting.

All (every, everyone)​

Dictionary Definitions
All - used to refer to the whole quantity or extent of a particular group or thing
Every - used to refer to all the individual members of a set without exception

Warning: The meaning of the words “all” and “every” and “everyone” has been distorted by many to make verses fit the doctrine they prescribe. As these words can refer to ambiguous groupings unless the “group” is identified, it is best to ascertain the specific meaning from scripture that is explicit rather than implicit.
In Scripture the word “all” (as applied to humankind) is used in two senses—absolutely and relatively. In some passages it means all without exception; in others it signifies all without distinction.

Matthew 3:5 At that time Jerusalem was going out to him, and all Judea and all the district around the Jordan; it would be incredulous to believe everyone including babies, the blind, the disabled went to see Jesus

Acts 26:4 Paul says, The Jews all know the way I have lived ever since I was a child, from the beginning of my life in my own country, and also in Jerusalem. Does he mean that every Jew without exception knew him? How about those who lived in the past and those who would live in the future?


World
The word “World” per A.W. Pink

The fact is that “the world” is often used in a general way as in John 3:16. When the brethren of Christ said, “Shew Thyself to the world” (John 7:4), did they mean “shew Thyself to all mankind”? When the Pharisees said, “Behold, the world is gone after Him” (John 12:19), did they mean that “all the human family” were flocking after Him? When the apostle wrote, “Your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world” (Romans 1:8), did he mean that the faith of the saints at Rome was the subject of conversation by every man, woman, and child on the earth? When Revelation 13:3 informs us that “all the world wondered after the beast”, are we to understand that there will be no exceptions? What of the godly Jewish Remnant, who will be slain (Revelation 20:4) rather than submit? These, and other passages (John 14:17; John 15:19; John 16:20; John 17:14; etc.) which might be quoted, show that the term “the world” often has a relative rather than an absolute force

 

[st_worm2]

Hello Dave (Dave...), et al, I'll start with these, two verses that get a LOT of push-back from the folks in the same systematic theological camp.

John 12​

32 “And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw ~all men~ to Myself.” ​

​

2 Peter 3​

9 The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward ~you~, not wishing for ~any~ to perish but for ~all~ to come to repentance.​

There is much that can be said about both of these amazing verses, but I have no idea how the majority view about them (that they are speaking of "all w/o exception") can possibly be true

For instance, there are still people dying today who have never heard the name "Jesus Christ", as well many others who die having heard His name, but not who He is or anything else about Him, so how can it possibly be believed by so many that v32 is speaking of drawing "all men" without exception, rather than "all men" without distinction

As far as 2 Peter 3:9 goes, it's found in an Epistle that is clearly written to the saints, alone. This is also true of Chapter 3, as well as the passage in Chapter 3 that v9 is found in (both before and after it), which means that the "you", the "any" and the "all" of v9 are actually referring to two specific groups alone, 1. saints and 2. saints to be.

There is also the context of the verse itself to consider. For instance, if verse 9's "you", "any" and "all" is in reference to a group that includes all who have ever lived, that would mean that the Lord (in the case of the reprobate) is patiently waiting for a large group of people to come to saving faith who He ~already knows~ never will!

There's more to consider, of course (about these 2 verses and many others too), but this is enough for now ?

God bless you!!

--David

 

[Arial]

Do you believe that in the Bible, words like "all" and "world" and "every man" always mean every last single thing or person unless specifically limited (e.g. 1 John 3:3) OR do you recognize that sometimes in the Bible, words like "all" means "all kinds of" (1 Timothy 6:10) and "world" means Gentiles as opposed to Jews only (John 12:19-20) and "every man" means "every kind of man" (Acts 4:35/1 Corinthians 7:2) without any specific mention of a limitation?

I would add here too, that sometimes "all" refers to all of a particular group.

2 Peter 3:9 The Lord is not slow to fulfill his promise as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing that any should perish , but that all should reach repentance.
In that passage the "all" are qualified by who Peter is writing to and why he is writing it. (The content of verses 1-8)

And "world" in addition to sometimes meaning all types of men can also mean the whole creation. It is after all the whole creation that is being restored. (Is 11; Rev 21).

 

[Fastfredy0]

I would add here too, that sometimes "all" refers to all of a particular group.

I would think "all" always refers to everyone or everything in a particular group. The issue with it's usage is that often the "particular group" is not specified so people can insert what they think the "particular group" is.
Example... Jill says, "All motorcycles have two wheels. " Greg responds, "That's ridiculous. A single motorcycle has two wheels. And there are of 200,000,000 motorcycles in the world. Therefore, all motorcycles would have over 400,000,000 wheels.

 

[Whatever]

I would think "all" always refers to everyone or everything in a particular group. The issue with it's usage is that often the "particular group" is not specified so people can insert what they think the "particular group" is.

1 Corinthians 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive

Some universalists have used this to say that everybody will be made alive.

The "in Christ" can only refer to those who are "in Christ" by faith. So here it does mean every individual person in Christ.

With the "in Adam all die" that would seem to be every individual human being. We are in Adam by birth.

Genesis 5:24 And Enoch walked with God; and he was not, for God took him.
2 Kings 2:11 Then it happened, as they continued on and talked, that suddenly a chariot of fire appeared with horses of fire, and separated the two of them; and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven.

1 Corinthians 15:51 Behold, I tell you a mystery: We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed— 52 in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet. For the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed.

It sounds like at least at the last day, many will not sleep (die) but will simply change instantly. I would say the same thing happened to Elijah. I'm not sure about Enoch.

But the "in Adam all die" can't mean all without exception, because we see above that some don't die.

What do you think?

 

[st_worm2]

1 Corinthians 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive

The "in Christ" can only refer to those who are "in Christ" by faith. So here it does mean every individual person in Christ.
With the "in Adam all die" that would seem to be every individual human being. We are in Adam by birth.

Hello Whatever, I agree, but with this single caveat, that the comparison that we find here (of "in Adam" and "in Christ") is a comparison of likes. IOW, v22 is addressing what it means to be "in Adam" and "in Christ", SPIRITUALLY speaking, which the verb in the first half of the verse ("in Adam all die"), being in the present, active, indicative, also helps make clear for us.

But the "in Adam all die" can't mean all without exception, because we see above that some don't die. What do you think?

I think that everyone, without exception (including Enoch, Elijah and believers at the end of the age who are alive when the Lord returns) is born "in Adam" and therefore, ALL, w/o exception are "dead", spiritually, until some are "born again" and "made alive" by God, spiritually, "in Christ".

God bless you!!

--David

Ephesians 2​

1 ~You were dead~ in your trespasses and sins, ​

2 in which you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience. ​

3 Among them we too all formerly lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were ~by nature~ children of wrath, even as the rest. ​

4 ~But God~, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, ​

5 even ~when we were dead~ in our transgressions, ~made us alive together with Christ~ (by grace you have been saved).​

 

[Fastfredy0]

1 Corinthians 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive

Some universalists have used this to say that everybody will be made alive.

The "in Christ" can only refer to those who are "in Christ" by faith. So here it does mean every individual person in Christ.

With the "in Adam all die" that would seem to be every individual human being. We are in Adam by birth.

Genesis 5:24 And Enoch walked with God; and he was not, for God took him.
2 Kings 2:11 Then it happened, as they continued on and talked, that suddenly a chariot of fire appeared with horses of fire, and separated the two of them; and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven.

1 Corinthians 15:51 Behold, I tell you a mystery: We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed— 52 in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet. For the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed.

It sounds like at least at the last day, many will not sleep (die) but will simply change instantly. I would say the same thing happened to Elijah. I'm not sure about Enoch.

But the "in Adam all die" can't mean all without exception, because we see above that some don't die.

What do you think?

Well, from reading your posts in the past I think I agree with you 95% of the time. As to this specific post ...
I agree that not everyone will physically die at some point; yet, I think the verses like "in Adam all die" would refer to everyone without exception. It seems to me the at times when the result is say, 99.9999% true then to generalize that everyone dies without exception could be used. In a similar way, sometimes I believe the bible will round off as in it might say 12,000 men and the actual number might be 12,101.
Personally, I wish scripture was literally precise but I don't think it is. I do know the bible as originally written has no mistakes so you can't explain this literal conflict IMO by saying the Bible contradicts itself when it says everyone dies and yet has some examples of people who didn't.

Anyways, my MAIN TAKEAWAY on the subject is that the usage of the word ALL can mean everything/everyone with exception or without distinction. ALL is therefore ambiguous unless the particular group the ALL refers to is given.

Example... Jill says, "All motorcycles have two wheels. " Greg responds, "That's ridiculous. A single motorcycle has two wheels. And there are of 200,000,000 motorcycles in the world. Therefore, all motorcycles would have over 400,000,000 wheels. Thus the word ALL is ambiguous and often construed by one's bias

 

[jonathanbrickman0000]

All of this, is very good example as to why it is absolutely fruitless to approach the Holy Scriptures as if it were mathematical symbolic logic, which means, demanding absolute and invariable definitions of terms with hard-edged definitions and zero gray areas in operations between them. These demands require that there is nothing requiring act of God to bring an unbeliever to belief, which is the fundamental underlying untruth.

 

[Whatever]

I think that everyone, without exception (including Enoch, Elijah and believers at the end of the age who are alive when the Lord returns) is born "in Adam" and therefore, ALL, w/o exception are "dead"

This makes me wonder, Jesus was born. Was He born in Adam?
Paul seems to make Jesus unique by calling Him a last Adam or second man.

1 Corinthians 15:45 Thus it is written, “The first man Adam became a living being”; the last Adam became a life-giving spirit.
1 Corinthians 15:47 The first man was from the earth, a man of dust; the second man is from heaven.

Wondering if the virgin birth has something to do with this.

 

[Fastfredy0]

This makes me wonder, Jesus was born. Was He born in Adam?

Can a bad tree bare good fruit?

 

[st_worm2]

This makes me wonder, Jesus was born. Was He born in Adam?

Hello again Whatever, if the Lord Jesus was born in the exact same manner that all of us were, then He would have been born with a fallen, sinful nature just like all of us have (all of us being born as, "sons of disobedience" and "BY NATURE, children of wrath" .. Ephesians 2:1-3). It's also true that if He was born with the same, fallen nature that we have, that He could not be the "spotless Lamb of God", nor could He be our Savior, as He would have needed a Savior Himself.

Wondering if the virgin birth has something to do with this.

I think that you may be onto something there (so says the entirety of the historic Christian church, as well, Roman Catholic, Orthodox and Protestant).

God bless you!!

--David

John 1​

14 The Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and ~we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth~. ​

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Hebrews 4​

15 We do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin. ​

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Hebrews 7​

26 For it was fitting for us to have such a high priest, holy, innocent, undefiled, separated from sinners and exalted above the heavens; ​

27 who does not need daily, like those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the sins of the people, because this He did once for all when He offered up Himself. ​

​