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Was the Trinity included in Jesus’ gospel?

Furthermore, it is obvious that John would never distort God’s word by saying that if anyone calls God his Father, he is necessarily claiming to be equal with God! - John 8:41; Matt. 23:9; John 20:17; Is. 64:8; Jer. 3:4, 19; Luke 3:38; Ro. 8:14, 15; Gen. 6:2; Job 38:7. - It must have been the words of those who by their traditions “nullify the word of God.â€
This begins by begging the question. And the references above do not at all support the argument being made. Clearly when we see Jesus being called, or referring to himself as, the Son of God, it is categorically different from when people are referred to as sons of God or call God their Father.

To us, God is our Father as he is our Creator. To believers, we are adopted as sons and daughters of God, heirs with Christ, and so God is our Father in a different way. However, when Christ is referred to as the Son of God or God is said to be his Father, it is in a literal way, that is by way of nature, which is never used of humans.

teddy trueblood said:
Now let’s look at the Greek term “equal.â€

The trinitarian reference work The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Vol. 2, pp. 496, 497, states:
“Although it is impossible to make a clear and universally applicable differentiation between the two word-groups, as they are often interchangeable, in general the isos group [ison] indicates more strongly an external, objectively measurable and established likeness and correspondence, while the words connected with homoios express more substantial, essential likeness .... Although the term does not appear in the NT, a note on homoousios [clearly more closely related to homoios above, not ison] has been appended to the article on homoios in view of the crucial importance of the term in the debates on the person of Christ in the early Church [325 A.D.]. It was opposed by the Arians but included in the Creed of Nicaea (325) asserting that Christ was ‘of the same substance [‘essence,’ ‘nature’] as the Father,’ and as such passed into the Nicene Creed.â€

So, right off the bat, we can see that, in general, if we wanted a term to show Jesus’ real equality (in his very “essence†or “natureâ€) with God, we wouldn’t use the term ison. -- [Of course this is all in accordance with the incredible trinitarian principal that no inspired Bible writer can actually come out and say: “three persons make up the only true God, and those three are the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spiritâ€] -- And, although homoousios [“of the same substanceâ€] was never used in Scripture to show Christ’s relationship to God, it was nevertheless so applied, after much violent, heated debate, in 325 A.D. (over the objection of the vast majority of Bishops who preferred the term homoiousios [“of similar substanceâ€]).

Obviously it was felt necessary by these 4th century Church trinitarian policy-makers to use this non-Biblical term instead of ison in order to declare Jesus’ essential equality with the Father. The fact that Scripture never uses it for this purpose is, therefore, very significant!

But let’s continue the examination of ison (or isos). The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, vol. 2, p. 968 (1984 reprint), discussing isos, reveals:
“In Mt 20:12, ‘made them equal’ means ‘put them upon the same footing,’ i.e. regarded their brief service as though it were the very same as our long hours of toil. In Lk 20:36 the context restricts the equality to a particular relation.â€

In other words, ison at Matt. 20:12 makes the workers measurably “equal†in only one external aspect: the amount of money they were to receive. They were really very unequal otherwise. Also in Luke 20:36, as the trinitarian reference book quoted above tells us, those resurrected humans and God’s angels are not necessarily considered equal in essence in this scripture but in only one particular relation: they will not die again.
And, of course, it is a fallacy to claim that because a word means something in another usage that it cannot mean something else.

teddy trueblood said:
So, Jesus’ apparent arrogation (in his enemies’ eyes, at any rate) to himself of the authority to “change†God’s Sabbath law (which, of course, he was not really doing) made him appear to them to be claiming to be “equal†to God (in that particular aspect: “changing†God’s Law - only).

It seems reasonably certain from the above that the Jews didn’t really believe Jesus was actually claiming to be God but attempting to usurp God’s authority in this one respect! But, since these were Jesus’ enemies who were making this false charge at John 5:18, it really matters very little what they claimed!
This is incorrect as it is clear the Jews' claim that Jesus was claiming equality with God was directly based on Jesus referring to God as his own Father.

But this whole argument misses one significant point, and that is verse 17:

Joh 5:17 But Jesus answered them, "My Father is working until now, and I am working."

The Jews understood God to be continually working, sustaining creation, and Jesus is saying that he is doing likewise. This statement is much more than just claiming God as his Father, he is claiming to be equal in nature to his Father.

From John Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible:

"and I work; or "also I work"; as the Syriac and Arabic version reads; i.e. in conjunction with him, as a co-efficient cause in the works of providence, in the government of the world, in upholding all things in it, in bearing up the pillars of the earth, in holding things together, and sustaining all creatures: "

From Vincent's Word Studies:

Joh 5:17
Worketh
The discussion turned on work on the Sabbath. The Father's work in maintaining and redeeming the world has continued from the creation until the present moment (ἕως ἄρτι): until now, not interrupted by the Sabbath.

And I work (κἀγὼ ἐργάζομαι)
Or, I also work. The two clauses are coordinated. The relation, as Meyer observes, is not that of imitation, or example, but of equality of will and procedure. Jesus does not violate the divine ideal of the Sabbath by His holy activity on that day. “Man's true rest is not a rest from human, earthly labor, but a rest for divine, heavenly labor. Thus the merely negative, traditional observance of the Sabbath is placed in sharp contrast with the positive, final fulfillment of spiritual service, for which it was a preparation†(Westcott). (Underline by me)

And the above is supported by Col 1:17, when in speaking of Christ Paul writes:

Col 1:17 And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together. (ESV)
 
And, again, this is not a scripture "plainly stating that Jesus is God."
Perhaps, but this is not the whole story.

Those who deny the divinity of Jesus often appeal to an absence of direct assertions of divinity on His part. Fair enough – Jesus never makes “I am God in substance†statements. However, it is often assumed that the absence of such direct claims seals the deal, as if there are no other “types†of scriptural evidence that are relevant to settling the question of Jesus’ divinity. Whether done intentionally or otherwise, it is not legitimate to restrict admissable evidence to direct, declarative claims.

Consider the legend of King Arthur. The defining criteria for a legitimate claim to kingship in the context of that legend was the successful extraction of the sword “Excalibur†from a rock. The Arthur character is situated a narrative framework with criteria for kingship established long before he comes on the scene. Anyone who draws Excalibur from the stone is established as king apart from any “claims†that such a person, or anyone else, might make.

Something similar is at work in the Scriptures: In the Old Testament, a “template†of promised divine actions are set forth: God will return to His people, God will rescue them from exile, God will act in a publically discernible manner, etc. As argued in detail elsewhere, Jesus fulfills this template – He does the very things that the Old Testament says are reserved to God alone. To those with ears to hear, the implication is clear, if astonishing: Jesus is the very embodiment of Israel’s God. He does not need to “claim†divinity – His actions speak far louder than any words could.

The argument that Jesus should not be seen as divine because He does not directly claim such status is seductive in its simplicity. After all, if Jesus really were God, why would He not directly claim to be? Well, actions speak louder than words and the thing left unstated is often thereby more forcefully driven home. Besides, Jesus does indeed use words to claim divinity, but these words are carefully cryptic and coded. A point is often made more compelling through the subtlety of its articulation.

How does Marc Antony achieve his objective in his speech following the murder of Caesar? He skillfully uses both rhetorical patterns and emotive imagery to persuade the crowd to rise up and go after Caesar’s killers. He makes the point more effectively through the artful way he “says it without saying it directlyâ€. As I, and perhaps others, have already argued in other threads, Jesus does similar things – He says in carefully coded language that He is indeed taking on the role of Israel’s God.
 

FrustratedForumer,

Hope thou art prepared to be frustrated further ...

Are you able to show me verses of Jesus' preaching to da multitudes
(you know, the poor, whom Jesus was anointed to preach to) ...
where the Trinity is a part of His gospel?
... as per el posto numero uno.

Good luck, and good sleepin'.
 
FrustratedForumer,

Hope thou art prepared to be frustrated further ...

Are you able to show me verses of Jesus' preaching to da multitudes
(you know, the poor, whom Jesus was anointed to preach to) ...
... where the Trinity is a part of His gospel?

Good luck, and good sleepin'.
Not at all JZ, just sad that this can not be plainly seen, and must be ripped to pieces. Sorry but I am not into making mountains out of mole hills. You have stated that you believe in the Trinity, but then you turn it around in attempts to make it what its not?

What needs to be addressed here is your definition of what the gospel is! & why it is believed that Jesus would not have preached it?
 
teddy_trueblood said:
.....this was actually the Jews’ statement or thought (not John’s).
Even though I believe that Jesus is fully divine, I agree with this statement of yours in respect to the bit about "equality with God" in that text from John 5. I think the way the text reads forces us to conclude that it was the Jews who understood Jesus to be claiming equality with God. And, of course, the fact that the Jews believed something does not mean that Jesus believed it.

But as per a number of arguments that have yet to be engaged by you in this and the other thread, I believe that Jesus did indeed believe Himself to be the embodiment of Israel's God.

The fact that this particular text from John 5 might not support that conclusion does not, of course, undermine the argument for Jesus' divinity.
 
FrustratedForumer,

Hope thou art prepared to be frustrated further ...

Are you able to show me verses of Jesus' preaching to da multitudes
(you know, the poor, whom Jesus was anointed to preach to) ...
where the Trinity is a part of His gospel?
... as per el posto numero uno.

Good luck, and good sleepin'.
I have difficulty understanding your poijnt. You appear to believe in the Trinity and yet, if I have this right, you do not believe that Jesus ever told this to the "multitudes". Well, he certainly told it to some people. As per a detailed argument of mine given in one of these threads, I believe that Jesus' entire final journey to Jerusalem, including things He said and did en route, would send the clear message to any Biblically literate person that Jesus understood Himself to be fulfilling the promised return of God to His people.

And that makes him "God" in the flesh.
 
I have difficulty understanding your poijnt. You appear to believe in the Trinity and yet, if I have this right, you do not believe that Jesus ever told this to the "multitudes". Well, he certainly told it to some people. As per a detailed argument of mine given in one of these threads, I believe that Jesus' entire final journey to Jerusalem, including things He said and did en route, would send the clear message to any Biblically literate person that Jesus understood Himself to be fulfilling the promised return of God to His people.

And that makes him "God" in the flesh.
So glad someone else sees it this way!
 
I have difficulty understanding your poijnt. You appear to believe in the Trinity and yet, if I have this right, you do not believe that Jesus ever told this to the "multitudes". Well, he certainly told it to some people. As per a detailed argument of mine given in one of these threads, I believe that Jesus' entire final journey to Jerusalem, including things He said and did en route, would send the clear message to any Biblically literate person that Jesus understood Himself to be fulfilling the promised return of God to His people.
And that makes him "God" in the flesh.
Sooooooo glad to see you guys in agreement.
As I keep repeatin' ...
Please point me to a verse or two where Jesus preaches the Trinity to da multitudes on da hills.
I don't think I'm askin' too much, do you?

P.S. This is more of a technicality than anything.
I mentioned it to my wife and immediately she said:
"Of course He didn't, that would be ridiculous. It would have totally blown their minds.
They would have thought He was crazy. They didn't have the Holy Spirit, etc."

So, please, boys and girls, try and wake up and smell da roses ... they're wonderful.

Oh, while I'm here ... this is analogous to God not teachin' the Trinity to da Israelites.
Believe me, God had enough on His plate with them to be tryin' to teach Triune God also.

Another P.S. -- Even some believers with the Holy Spirit don't believe in the Trinity.
Even seein' some of the verses, it just doesn't click. Warning: revelation required.
 
Sooooooo glad to see you guys in agreement.
As I keep repeatin' ...
Please point me to a verse or two where Jesus preaches the Trinity to da multitudes on da hills.
I don't think I'm askin' too much, do you?

P.S. This is more of a technicality than anything.
I mentioned it to my wife and immediately she said:
"Of course He didn't, that would be ridiculous. It would have totally blown their minds.
They would have thought He was crazy. They didn't have the Holy Spirit, etc."

So, please, boys and girls, try and wake up and smell da roses ... they're wonderful.

Oh, while I'm here ... this is analogous to God not teachin' the Trinity to da Israelites.
Believe me, God had enough on His plate with them to be tryin' to teach Triune God also.
It was implied, but of course most didn't think he was the Messiah, much less God in the flesh.

John Zain said:
Another P.S. -- Even some believers with the Holy Spirit don't believe in the Trinity.
Even seein' some of the verses, it just doesn't click. Warning: revelation required.
Perhaps but perhaps those who don't believe in the Trinity, or at least the deity of Christ, aren't believers. Claiming to be a follower of Christ does not automatically make one a believer.
 
Sooooooo glad to see you guys in agreement.
As I keep repeatin' ...
Please point me to a verse or two where Jesus preaches the Trinity to da multitudes on da hills.
I don't think I'm askin' too much, do you?

Please see post 71 for starters.

I really hope that you are not "stuck" in the erroneous belief that the only category of Biblical evidence that "counts" is "a verse". This kind of thinking (and I am not necessarily saying you are thinking this way) is all too prevalent these days and it shrinks and impoverishes the Scriptures.

As has been argued by me, and perhaps others, the Bible is not primarily a set of doctrinal statements, but is instead primarily a narrative. And in a narrative, actions and verbal allusions that appeal to that narrative are valid modes of communicating.

I suggest that it was through such actions and allusions, and not through direct assertions, that Jesus stakes His claim as the embodiment of Israel's God.

Again, from the rest of your post, it seems that you think that Jesus never represented Himself as divine. I disagree - there is a wealth of evidence in the New Testament indicating that Jesus believed He was the embodiment of Israel's God.
 
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Please see post 71 for starters.
I really hope that you are not "stuck" in the erroneous belief that the only category of Biblical evidence that "counts" is "a verse". This kind of thinking (and I am not necessarily saying you are thinking this way) is all too prevalent these days and it shrinks and impoverishes the Scriptures.
As has been argued by me, and perhaps others, the Bible is not primarily a set of doctrinal statements, but is instead primarily a narrative. And in a narrative, actions and verbal allusions that appeal to that narrative are valid modes of communicating.
I suggest that it was through such actions and allusions, and not through direct assertions, that Jesus stakes His claim as the embodiment of Israel's God.
Again, from the rest of your post, it seems that you think that Jesus never represented Himself as divine. I disagree - there is a wealth of evidence in the New Testament indicating that Jesus believed He was the embodiment of Israel's God.

I'm not sure if we've covered this yet, but ...
God in the OT, and Jesus in the NT, were certainly not about to blow the people's minds
(who did NOT have the Holy Spirit) by preachin' Trinity to them! ... Ridiculous.
(I mentioned this to my wife, and immediately she had a huge laugh.)
Jesus HAD to talk about it to His disciples ... so it would get written in the gospels.

Matthew 23:
37 “O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the one who kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to her!
How often I wanted to gather your children together, as a hen gathers her chicks under her wings,
but you were not willing!
38 See! Your house is left to you desolate;

Yes indeed, Jesus was talking to the multitudes and His disciples.
But, who in the multitudes understood His meaning?
And more obviously: Who in the multitudes would see the Triune God in these words?

P.S. Drew, I was raised in T.O. and went to Mt. A. for 4 years.
 
What we have undergone -- persecutions, afflictions, imperial threats, cruelty from officials, and whatever other trial at the hands of heretics -- we have put up with for the sake of the gospel faith established by the 318 fathers at Nicaea in Bithynia. You, we and all who are not bent on subverting the word of the true faith should give this creed our approval. It is the most ancient and is consistent with our baptism. It tells us how to believe in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy Spirit: believing also, of course, that the Father, the Son and the holy Spirit have a single Godhead and power and substance, a dignity deserving the same honour and a co-eternal sovereignty, in three most perfect hypostases, or three perfect persons. So there is no place for Sabellius's diseased theory in which the hypostases are confused and thus their proper characteristics destroyed. Nor may the blasphemy of Eunomians and Arians and Pneumatomachi prevail, with its division of substance or of nature or of Godhead, and its introduction of some nature which was produced subsequently, or was created, or was of a different substance, into the uncreated and consubstantial and co-eternal Trinity.
[Quoted from: A letter of the bishops gathered in Constantinople" First Council of Constantinople - 381]

Is this not the closest thing we have of the debate on the Trinity? The closest thing we have to outright asking Jesus in the flesh?
 
Is this not the closest thing we have of the debate on the Trinity? The closest thing we have to outright asking Jesus in the flesh?
"Is this not the closest thing we have of"
someone (you) being UNABLE to read and understand something (i.e. post #1)?

P.S. The reason for this thread:
There actually is a reason for the Trinity NOT being taught to the multitudes in the Holy Scriptures.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
I'm quite positive there is an excellent reason John, but I don't think you'd agree with me on what it actually is!

Shall we compare notes?
 
I'm quite positive there is an excellent reason John, but I don't think you'd agree with me on what it actually is!
Shall we compare notes?
Previously on LOST (in Episode 95) ...
P.S. The reason for this thread:
There actually is a reason for the Trinity NOT being taught to the multitudes in the Holy Scriptures.

And the reason is:
Anyone preaching Trinity to the unsaved will be considered an idiot by them.

The gospel, and the Trinity, are both total "foolishness" to the unsaved (1 Cor 1:18).
The Holy Spirit must bring these things as "revelation knowledge" to the propsective believer in them.
 
Previously on LOST (in Episode 95) ...
P.S. The reason for this thread:
There actually is a reason for the Trinity NOT being taught to the multitudes in the Holy Scriptures.

And the reason is:
Anyone preaching Trinity to the unsaved will be considered an idiot by them.

The gospel, and the Trinity, are both total "foolishness" to the unsaved (1 Cor 1:18).
The Holy Spirit must bring these things as "revelation knowledge" to the propsective believer in them.

Is that why Jesus doesn't preach it anywhere?
 
Is that why (below) Jesus doesn't preach it anywhere?
Anyone preaching Trinity to the unsaved will be considered an idiot by them.

The gospel, and the Trinity, are both total "foolishness" to the unsaved (1 Cor 1:18).
The Holy Spirit must bring these things as "revelation knowledge" to the propsective believer in them.

Yup, I just said that was the reason.

The Pharisees picked up on stuff like Him saying God was His Father, etc.
and deduced correctly that He was claiming to be at least EQUAL to God.

He spoke of this EQUALITY to His disciples (who trusted Him somewhat).
He even spoke of the Holy Spirit being on a Par with He and His Father (John 14:16-26, etc.)
But, guess why? Dah.

So His statements would be recorded for guys like you to read.
Wow, how thoughtful of Him.
 
Anyone preaching Trinity to the unsaved will be considered an idiot by them.

This is a bit alarming John.

Are you saying that Jesus deliberately hid the truth from the multitudes on da hills, because He didn't want them to think He was an idiot?

Then if this is such an important doctrine, He was only preaching a partial gospel. That right?

The gospel, and the Trinity, are both total "foolishness" to the unsaved (1 Cor 1:18).
I've read 1 Cor.1.18 many times. I don't see the trinity mentioned there. Sure you aren't adding to scripture?
[...]

So His statements would be recorded for guys like you to read.
Wow, how thoughtful of Him.
You used to make some sense - but now I haven't the faintest clue what you're talking about.
 
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