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What kind of theist was Moses?

Vinny37

A Elbereth Gilthoniel.
Member
I grant the Pentateuch to be substantially Moses’, but deem his monotheism to be cloudy. For instance, while Genesis is clear that Yahweh is a.k.a Elohim (God/deity), Moses often used polytheistic monolatry expressions, as if Yahweh was a god, but their sole and exclusive god—and other nations had their own gods/goddesses. Bible translations hide this by artificially capitalising polytheistic terms [viz God instead of god], a bit like some capitalise pronouns about Jesus [eg He instead of he].

John Wesley accepted that everlasting salvation was globally accessible without evangelism (philosophical soteriology), but he got on with his calling to evangelise (pragmatic soteriology).

Similarly, I suspect that Moses’ mind grasped that one alone, Yahweh, was God/deity (philosophical monotheism), but that as a shepherd Moses spoke to his sheep in less exalted terms of monolatry (worship only Yahweh: pragmatic monotheism?), as if Sinai did not need to insist on strict monotheism.

Ex.32:11: And Moses besought Yahweh his god…

Lv.19:4: Do not…cast images of gods for yourselves; I am Yahweh your god.
 
I grant the Pentateuch to be substantially Moses’, but deem his monotheism to be cloudy. For instance, while Genesis is clear that Yahweh is a.k.a Elohim (God/deity), Moses often used polytheistic monolatry expressions, as if Yahweh was a god, but their sole and exclusive god—and other nations had their own gods/goddesses. Bible translations hide this by artificially capitalising polytheistic terms [viz God instead of god], a bit like some capitalise pronouns about Jesus [eg He instead of he].

John Wesley accepted that everlasting salvation was globally accessible without evangelism (philosophical soteriology), but he got on with his calling to evangelise (pragmatic soteriology).

Similarly, I suspect that Moses’ mind grasped that one alone, Yahweh, was God/deity (philosophical monotheism), but that as a shepherd Moses spoke to his sheep in less exalted terms of monolatry (worship only Yahweh: pragmatic monotheism?), as if Sinai did not need to insist on strict monotheism.

Ex.32:11: And Moses besought Yahweh his god…

Lv.19:4: Do not…cast images of gods for yourselves; I am Yahweh your god.
He was one that was accepted by the true God Jehovah sir.
 
He was one that was accepted by the true God Jehovah sir.
Your reply nicely makes the point that many of us still speak as polytheists: our god is wonderful, our particular god is a healer, etc. All anachronistic theology. In context, [the true god] implies at least another kind of god, an untrue god. A true monotheist might say, [He was one that was accepted by Yahweh, who alone is God, sir].

I accept that Moses was accepted by God, but historically not all accepted by God knew that he alone was God. It’s easiest to see what the OT elohim texts say, once you decapitalise [God] to [god].
 
I grant the Pentateuch to be substantially Moses’, but deem his monotheism to be cloudy. For instance, while Genesis is clear that Yahweh is a.k.a Elohim (God/deity), Moses often used polytheistic monolatry expressions, as if Yahweh was a god, but their sole and exclusive god—and other nations had their own gods/goddesses. Bible translations hide this by artificially capitalising polytheistic terms [viz God instead of god], a bit like some capitalise pronouns about Jesus [eg He instead of he].

The term elohim simply means a spiritual inhabitant, a place of residence that's not the physical. It describes someone, something that is spiritual and not physical. Not human. While the term is used to describe deities, it's describing them that way because they are considered spiritual beings. The term is also used to describe demons, for example, in Deuteronomy 32:17. It's usually translated as "to gods" (KJV, NLT, ESV), but the context there are the shedim at the beginning of the verse, which are demons and often translated as false gods, demons, or devils in most popular translations.

When translating any language to another language, the context of the sentence, paragraph, etc. and to add theological context determines the meaning of the word in the translation. In this sense, if we take Genesis 1:1, for example, where elohim is used for God here, and when comparing with other context throughout scripture, take Isaiah 45:12, for example. Where, it is Yehovah talking (see verse 45:1) and God says it was He who created Earth and man, etc. If you want a Moses verse, look at Exodus 31:15 where again the word there is Yehovah who is talking and proclaiming to have created everything within six days and rested on the seventh. Thus, when using this context it becomes evident that elohim in Genesis 1:1 is not talking about multiple creator deities despite the word elohim being plural and used for multiple deities in the surrounding cultures. Thus, all throughout the creation narrative elohim is translated as "God" due to the contextual understanding of the passage. Thus to distinguish Yahweh/Yehovah from the other "deities" or beings called elohim, God is capitalized in English.

In other passages throughout the Bible you have obvious terminology describing the One True God, such as names He's given Moses, Israel, etc. titles, descriptive titles, honor titles, sacred titles, etc. All of these are translated based on the context of the verse, nearby passages, paragraph, book, theological context, etc. It's not just an arbitrary thing, and it shows that Moses, and other Biblical authors, used language carefully.

Dr. Heiser, Hebrew and Ancient Middle East language expert, breaks this down in an article here: "Who Are the Elohim? The Answer Might Rattle Your Theology"

Toward the end of the article, Heiser emphasizes that despite the plural nature of elohim and the fact that some Biblical writers used it to talk about other "gods" the word does not imply polytheism. And I quote (emphasis mine):

The importance of this list can be summarized with one question: Would any Israelite, especially a biblical writer, really believe that the deceased human dead and demons are on the same level as Yahweh? No.

The usage of the term elohim by biblical writers tells us very clearly that the term is not about a set of attributes. Even though when we see “G-o-d” we think of a unique set of attributes, when a biblical writer wrote elohim, he wasn’t thinking that way. If he were, he’d never have used the term elohim to describe anything but Yahweh.

Consequently, there is no warrant for concluding that plural elohim produces a pantheon of interchangeable deities. There is no basis for concluding that the biblical writers would have viewed Yahweh as no better than another elohim. A biblical writer would not have presumed that Yahweh could be defeated on any given day by another elohim, or that another elohim (why not any of them?) had the same set of attributes. That is polytheistic thinking. It is not the biblical picture.

John Wesley accepted that everlasting salvation was globally accessible without evangelism (philosophical soteriology), but he got on with his calling to evangelise (pragmatic soteriology).

Similarly, I suspect that Moses’ mind grasped that one alone, Yahweh, was God/deity (philosophical monotheism), but that as a shepherd Moses spoke to his sheep in less exalted terms of monolatry (worship only Yahweh: pragmatic monotheism?), as if Sinai did not need to insist on strict monotheism.

There's really no evidence in the original languages to support this. As I pointed out, when looked at in context, despite some of the words used for God being plural in linguistic nature, the context gives away who those words are talking about. I find that a lot of academic scholarship NOT inherently Christian tend to go out of their way to overlook these things in favor of placing them in a general ancient cultural context in order to get to the Israel was once Polytheist position. From Genesis, onward, Moses writes from a monotheistic position. Again, context. Despite the words used, God is always the unique one among the group and the others are only written as "deities" by way of what other nations believe, or what's wrongly believed initially by someone called by God before they realize their error, or by someone falling away from God and getting into false gods, devils, etc. Again, context.

Ex.32:11: And Moses besought Yahweh his god…

This is a passage quoted from an entire event in the Bible in which God is acting to not only deliver his people, but also show that the other "gods" are false and afterward in this event the Israelites, after seeing God's work, decide they would rather worship "false gods" (verses 1-8; 19-24) by way of a golden calf.

Lv.19:4: Do not…cast images of gods for yourselves; I am Yahweh your god.

This passage in chronological context comes after Israel did what it did above.
 
...God says it was He who created Earth and man, etc. If you want a Moses verse, look at Exodus 31:15 where again the word there is Yehovah who is talking and proclaiming to have created everything within six days and rested on the seventh.
Was typing something somewhere else using Exodus 20:11 and realized I fat fingered this and meant Exodus 20:11 here.
 
Similarly, I suspect that Moses’ mind grasped that one alone, Yahweh, was God/deity (philosophical monotheism), but that as a shepherd Moses spoke to his sheep in less exalted terms of monolatry (worship only Yahweh: pragmatic monotheism?), as if Sinai did not need to insist on strict monotheism.

Greetings, Vinny.

Deuteronomy 6:4-5 contradicts this view, IMO. Jesus quoted this passage in teaching the greatest commandment (Mark 12:29–30), telling them, “Hear, O Israel: Yahweh our God, Yahweh is One. And you shall love Yahweh your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your might.”

This is the basis of Hebrew monotheism. The problem was in addressing a polytheistic world with terminology they would understood, but differentiating between the "gods" the Gentiles worshipped and the One True God was clarified in passages like the one above in the Old Testament, and in the following in the New:

4 Therefore concerning the eating of things offered to idols, we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and that there is no other God but one. 5 For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many "gods" and many lords), 6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and through whom we live. (1 Corinthians 8:4-6)

In all other uses of the term God in the NT, it is either used in the singular of there being only One true God, or with qualification that what the nations termed "gods" in fact were not (Galatians 4:8).
 
The term elohim simply means a spiritual inhabitant, a place of residence that's not the physical. It describes someone, something that is spiritual and not physical. Not human. While the term is used to describe deities, it's describing them that way because they are considered spiritual beings. The term is also used to describe demons, for example, in Deuteronomy 32:17. It's usually translated as "to gods" (KJV, NLT, ESV), but the context there are the shedim at the beginning of the verse, which are demons and often translated as false gods, demons, or devils in most popular translations.

This is good. Thank you.
 
I have some knowledge of Michael Heiser, and I take it for granted that elohim has a semantic range, including spanning the singular/plural divide. Similarly, in the NT we can read of αγγελοι for both fallen and unfallen varieties (Jude 6; Lk.1:19), and the Athenians thought it inoffensive to call Jesus a δαιμονιον (Ac.17:18): historian Luke recorded that with a smile. And I happily affirm that theologically, elohim should sometimes be put as [God], though sometimes as [god] (eg Ex.2:25 as [God saw…God understood]; Ex.3:15 as [god of your fathers, the god of Abraham…Isaac…Jacob]: a monotheistic/‌polytheistic, divide, according to context.

As I think you will agree, in translation, context is king. I too have read enough of sub-biblical academia (and pseud-academia) on the internet about the Tanak, to make a stone weep. On the other hand, when I see [Why does this Man talk like this] (AMPC: Mk.2:7—“Capitalized because of what He is, the spotless Son of God, not what the speakers may have thought He was”), I think that like Luther’s drunk we’ve fallen off context. The ancient Heb/Gk. all had same case/height lettering. Translation capitalisation should, IMO, follow secular/common conventions per culture, and I would not hide polytheism behind sleight of capitalisation.

Although Ancient Israel would have spoken of [one true god], I maintain that in our culture we should exclude polytheistic talk, though treating it within its ancient culture: there is no true or untrue god/goddess, and to the extent that we have a god, we have not God.

To my mind, when Joshua offered the people a chance to renege on their covenant (Jos.24:15), he was not pandering to their monotheism but to their polytheism. Reminded of the covenant prologue, they wisely elected to have Yahweh as their elohim, rather than—in their minds—viable alternatives. (Otherwise, would Yahweh have raised up a new nation from Joshua, as he had offered to Moses?) Had Moses been mandated to teach philosophical monotheism (I know that term is moot), I guess he’d done a poor job. The chronology of Lv.19 & Ex.32 form the chronology of Moses.

So, tree from wood, What kind of theist was Moses? did you say? To summarise, I guess you say that in some places he was a monotheist (I agree), and therefore in all places was a monotheist (I disagree). My agreement/disagreement, does not effect the Q. I wished to raise, not answer, the Q, and appreciate your forum input.
The term elohim simply means a spiritual inhabitant, a place of residence that's not the physical. It describes someone, something that is spiritual and not physical. Not human. While the term is used to describe deities, it's describing them that way because they are considered spiritual beings. The term is also used to describe demons, for example, in Deuteronomy 32:17. It's usually translated as "to gods" (KJV, NLT, ESV), but the context there are the shedim at the beginning of the verse, which are demons and often translated as false gods, demons, or devils in most popular translations.

When translating any language to another language, the context of the sentence, paragraph, etc. and to add theological context determines the meaning of the word in the translation. In this sense, if we take Genesis 1:1, for example, where elohim is used for God here, and when comparing with other context throughout scripture, take Isaiah 45:12, for example. Where, it is Yehovah talking (see verse 45:1) and God says it was He who created Earth and man, etc. If you want a Moses verse, look at Exodus 31:15 where again the word there is Yehovah who is talking and proclaiming to have created everything within six days and rested on the seventh. Thus, when using this context it becomes evident that elohim in Genesis 1:1 is not talking about multiple creator deities despite the word elohim being plural and used for multiple deities in the surrounding cultures. Thus, all throughout the creation narrative elohim is translated as "God" due to the contextual understanding of the passage. Thus to distinguish Yahweh/Yehovah from the other "deities" or beings called elohim, God is capitalized in English.

In other passages throughout the Bible you have obvious terminology describing the One True God, such as names He's given Moses, Israel, etc. titles, descriptive titles, honor titles, sacred titles, etc. All of these are translated based on the context of the verse, nearby passages, paragraph, book, theological context, etc. It's not just an arbitrary thing, and it shows that Moses, and other Biblical authors, used language carefully.

Dr. Heiser, Hebrew and Ancient Middle East language expert, breaks this down in an article here: "Who Are the Elohim? The Answer Might Rattle Your Theology"

Toward the end of the article, Heiser emphasizes that despite the plural nature of elohim and the fact that some Biblical writers used it to talk about other "gods" the word does not imply polytheism. And I quote (emphasis mine):





There's really no evidence in the original languages to support this. As I pointed out, when looked at in context, despite some of the words used for God being plural in linguistic nature, the context gives away who those words are talking about. I find that a lot of academic scholarship NOT inherently Christian tend to go out of their way to overlook these things in favor of placing them in a general ancient cultural context in order to get to the Israel was once Polytheist position. From Genesis, onward, Moses writes from a monotheistic position. Again, context. Despite the words used, God is always the unique one among the group and the others are only written as "deities" by way of what other nations believe, or what's wrongly believed initially by someone called by God before they realize their error, or by someone falling away from God and getting into false gods, devils, etc. Again, context.



This is a passage quoted from an entire event in the Bible in which God is acting to not only deliver his people, but also show that the other "gods" are false and afterward in this event the Israelites, after seeing God's work, decide they would rather worship "false gods" (verses 1-8; 19-24) by way of a golden calf.



This passage in chronological context comes after Israel did what it did above.
 
Greetings, Vinny.

Deuteronomy 6:4-5 contradicts this view, IMO. Jesus quoted this passage in teaching the greatest commandment (Mark 12:29–30), telling them, “Hear, O Israel: Yahweh our God, Yahweh is One. And you shall love Yahweh your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your might.”

This is the basis of Hebrew monotheism. The problem was in addressing a polytheistic world with terminology they would understood, but differentiating between the "gods" the Gentiles worshipped and the One True God was clarified in passages like the one above in the Old Testament, and in the following in the New:

4 Therefore concerning the eating of things offered to idols, we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and that there is no other God but one. 5 For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many "gods" and many lords), 6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and through whom we live. (1 Corinthians 8:4-6)

In all other uses of the term God in the NT, it is either used in the singular of there being only One true God, or with qualification that what the nations termed "gods" in fact were not (Galatians 4:8).
Dt.6:4 is very flexible: compare say, the ASV to the CEV. In its Hebrew setting, it might well have been teaching that Yahweh was one Yahweh, ie, unlike the varying baals that varied place to place, Yahweh was the same/one: one covenant, one set of stipulations and regulations for one united people.

And Jesus teaching, cited OT as OT. Thus, if granting the idea of using God’s name directly in the NT (which has some merit), I’d translate Mk.12:29 as [Hear O Israel: Yahweh our god, Yahweh is one. And you shall love Yahweh your god…]. But you are dealing with a different can; my Q was not how Jesus or Paul or David handled monotheism, but How did Moses?

I believe in unfolding revelation, and that through the incarnation, Paul had a harder take on monotheism, besides the upgrade that it was trinitarian (one being/society, three persons). 1 Cor.8:6 is a handy text, so long as we see that if we deny deity to the lord, we deny lordship to deity—the father should be our emphasis on deity, and the son as Jesus our emphasis on lordship. The deificity of the son (as incarnate and noncarnate) is not at stake.

I find it curious that nowadays, a Christian can talk polytheistically to a Muslim about “your god”; a Muslim can talk polytheistically to a Christian about “your god”; and they both agree that there is no god but God/Allah.
 
I have some knowledge of Michael Heiser, and I take it for granted that elohim has a semantic range, including spanning the singular/plural divide. Similarly, in the NT we can read of αγγελοι for both fallen and unfallen varieties (Jude 6; Lk.1:19), and the Athenians thought it inoffensive to call Jesus a δαιμονιον (Ac.17:18): historian Luke recorded that with a smile. And I happily affirm that theologically, elohim should sometimes be put as [God], though sometimes as [god] (eg Ex.2:25 as [God saw…God understood]; Ex.3:15 as [god of your fathers, the god of Abraham…Isaac…Jacob]: a monotheistic/‌polytheistic, divide, according to context.
In Exodus 3:15 that's saying "Elohim (captalized here because it's the start of the sentence) furthermore said to Moses 'Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel Yehovah elohim of Abraham, of Isaac, and the elohim of Jacob has sent me to you...'" Distinguish what's what in the language there. All of the elohim in that passage are used in context to describe God as an elohim, but you see where it's explaining who this is, it puts Yehovah in front of elohim, but gives detailed context around the rest of the passage to distinguish this elohim, God, from the other elohim who are not God. This isn't a passage hinting at any kind of real polytheistic concepts. Instead, it's a passage where the author is going to great lengths to show they do not see Yehovah God on equal footing with anyone else. It's simply, again, them using a word within that time period to describe the type of being they talking about. Similarly with Exodus 2:25 and the use of elohim twice within it.

To explain it this way. Most of the Pentateuch is likely us seeing Moses' beginnings of laying down his conversations with God about the beginning. I also hold to the Tablet Theory and will add Moses likely by way of God and perhaps the passing down of some type of cuneiform tablets that survived since Adam, wrote down the beginnings, translating and summarizing in the writing style and vocabulary he was influenced by during that time. He'd spent time in Egypt and after running away from murdering the man, in Midian. His use of certain words available to him to explain the type of being and/or beings should only be looked at in the overall context they were used.

As I think you will agree, in translation, context is king. I too have read enough of sub-biblical academia (and pseud-academia) on the internet about the Tanak, to make a stone weep. On the other hand, when I see [Why does this Man talk like this] (AMPC: Mk.2:7—“Capitalized because of what He is, the spotless Son of God, not what the speakers may have thought He was”), I think that like Luther’s drunk we’ve fallen off context. The ancient Heb/Gk. all had same case/height lettering. Translation capitalisation should, IMO, follow secular/common conventions per culture, and I would not hide polytheism behind sleight of capitalisation.

I think you're stuck a bit too much on the capitalization in English translations. It's nothing more than an honorary or sacred thing to distinguish God as who He is. It's no different than Orthodox Jews refusing to say God's name or even spell out "God" in some of their writings and instead spell it as "G-d" as a sign of respect. Likewise, we capitalize titles of men out of respect: President of the United States, Prince of Egypt, General, etc. etc.

Also, Greek does have uppercase letters. Hebrew has no lowercase or uppercase letters. The word there in Mark 2:7 often translated as "He is blaspheming" in many translations is βλασφημεῖ, you see there the Beta is uppercase usually in the Textus Receptus or Majority Text. That's not really just an English translation thing. It can also be translated to "This man is blaspheming" as some translations do, but keep the first letter in uppercase. Or "It is blasphemy!" Still keeping the first letter uppercase.

Although Ancient Israel would have spoken of [one true god], I maintain that in our culture we should exclude polytheistic talk, though treating it within its ancient culture: there is no true or untrue god/goddess, and to the extent that we have a god, we have not God.

This statement is weird to me. You embrace that Ancient Israel would have spoken of the one true god, yet, say there is no true or untrue god/goddesses? If, as we know that they did from their writings, Ancient Israel spoke of a one true God, then that shows that their ancient culture considered there to exist a True God and untrue gods/goddesses. Your conclusion does not follow the evidence that we have.

I'll admit there's academia out there that muses around with these concepts, but I have found their efforts unimpressive. It's often done by removing the supernatural influence the Bible speaks of and attempts to look at the development of religion in the region from an evolutionary perspective in which they can explain things naturally and lump all of the belief systems into one. Ignoring certain things as I said above, such as Moses and the OT writers borrowing words and phrases from the environment around them. If God were to give me revelation today and say write it down, I can only use the vocabulary I'm influenced by in my time of living. I'm not going to suddenly create new words and phrases that no one around me will understand when they read my writing.

To my mind, when Joshua offered the people a chance to renege on their covenant (Jos.24:15), he was not pandering to their monotheism but to their polytheism. Reminded of the covenant prologue, they wisely elected to have Yahweh as their elohim, rather than—in their minds—viable alternatives. (Otherwise, would Yahweh have raised up a new nation from Joshua, as he had offered to Moses?) Had Moses been mandated to teach philosophical monotheism (I know that term is moot), I guess he’d done a poor job. The chronology of Lv.19 & Ex.32 form the chronology of Moses.

The narrative context from Exodus onwards, yes, tells you that Israel consistently fell back into the worship of false gods. Yes, in the region, and generally in most ancient cultures, polytheism was the form of religion the ancients practiced. It should come as no surprise that Israel fell in and out of a polytheistic influence. That's no difference than today, people fall in and out of secular influences, worshipping the state, etc. People are influenced by the things around them. As Hidden in Him said above, much of the language, theology, and ideas presented in the Bible was to combat against the surrounding polytheistic religions.

So, tree from wood, What kind of theist was Moses? did you say? To summarise, I guess you say that in some places he was a monotheist (I agree), and therefore in all places was a monotheist (I disagree). My agreement/disagreement, does not effect the Q. I wished to raise, not answer, the Q, and appreciate your forum input.

Moses was undoubtedly monotheistic in his writings when taken in overall context and factoring that in Moses' writings and experience, God removing the people of Israel from a polytheistic culture in Egypt and He supernaturally attacked ten of the Egyptian deities to show they lacked any type of power and authority to do anything about him. The Exodus narrative, specifically the removing of Israel from Egypt and the ten plagues are quite frankly a total attack on Egyptian deities. Generally speaking, you have Hapi, Heket, Geb, Khepri, Hathor, Isis, Nut, Seth, Rah, and finally Pharaoh who was considered divine, all attacked and shown to be false deities through the ten plagues.

I submit to you that if Moses upon being called by God in Midian started writing down the Pentateuch sometime after leaving Egypt, after his exposure to the True God, then every time Moses put the metaphorical pen to paper, Moses was writing from a Monotheistic perspective.

Now, we can speculate that while Moses was a Prince of Egypt perhaps Moses was a practicing polytheist. However, Moses was still raised in his formative years by his mother (Exodus 2:7-2:10) so, he likely had some split beliefs between the Hebrews and the Egyptians. To add to this, as context shows in the narrative, we know that the Hebrews at that time were also influenced by Egyptian polytheism. The point being, we can speculate that it was likely that while Moses, like the many of the other Israelites, were in Egypt that they held some polytheistic beliefs. But, that's by way of Egyptian influence and not by way of the Israelites or Hebrews starting from Abraham being inherently polytheistic. The Bible shows that's not the case.
 
Your reply nicely makes the point that many of us still speak as polytheists: our god is wonderful, our particular god is a healer, etc. All anachronistic theology. In context, [the true god] implies at least another kind of god, an untrue god. A true monotheist might say, [He was one that was accepted by Yahweh, who alone is God, sir].

I accept that Moses was accepted by God, but historically not all accepted by God knew that he alone was God. It’s easiest to see what the OT elohim texts say, once you decapitalise [God] to [god].
Yes sir Vinny37 very true. When I use the term in referring to Jehovah I capitalize it, but not for any other god, nor their name or title, like tammuz or satan.
 
Yahweh was often deemed to be “an elohim”, as you say. Likewise ba’al can mean master/lord, and arguable there were many baalim, many lords. Sometime capitalising to Baal, like with the Master in Dr. Who?, is justified translation. My take of Ex.3:15 is not of monotheism, but a subspecies of polytheism, the common language. I suspect that you read monotheism into it; I do not read monotheism out of it.

I do not hold the Tablet Theory, but with R K Harrison (if memory serves), have no problem with Moses using both literary and non-literary sources from such as Abraham, who broke from his father Terah’s worship. Incidentally I don’t buy into the murder theory: Moses committed manslaughter, but not all manslaughter is murder.

I advocate highlighting God’s exclusive title, when the context presumes monotheism, but honouring the authentic culture when cloaked in the misyts of polytheism. Moving somewhat from Moses, I’d agree with the NASB and render 1 Kg.20:28 as [man of God…“Yahweh says…‘a god of…a god of…I am Yahweh’”]. Would you? The line was spoken by an Israelite prophet to Israel, reporting the polytheistic milieu of the Arameans. Do you affirm such polytheistic speech about Yahweh from his opposition, without affirming polytheistic speech from the lips of his people?

I don’t know who [orthodox Jews] are, but I know that some orthodox Judaics (a religious, not an ethnic, belief) nowadays even avoids saying [God], less so when ethnic Jews are Christians (spiritual Jews). The ‘ancient’ C1 Greek was what we’d call capital text, uncial, or majuscule. More recent texts (c.C9) used minuscule, and only then we can pick up mixes of lower/uppercase. And such decisions were not canonical. But the Q remains about whether Moses was a thoroughgoing monotheist, and from there, how best to render Moses’ then position authentically.

What does it matter whether the MT or TRs have [blasphemy] as Βλασφημιας or βλασφημιας, as if to highlight Blasphemy in this context? Do you prefer to translate, [he is Blaspheming]? The [he is] part of the line is in fact in λαλει [he is speaking/he speaks], and if you wish to capitalise the speaker, that’s the word which would have been capitalised: ie Λαλει. In any case, that’s IMO a red herring, as if someone tells me that since the NKJV has [Why does this Man] for that same text, then whenever Jesus is spoken of as a man, we should capitalise in respect. I have no intention of following any quirks within the MT or its subset. The Gospel context was one of disrespect—[How can this fellow]: CJB.

I deliberately did not say [the one true god]. The article would presume validity. My point partly is that Ancient Israel would have had such polytheistic (thus mistaken) terms as if Yahweh was a true god, and describe him by many adjectives as a type of god, since it fitted their fuzzy theism. They happily contrasted their divinity (as they perceived God to be) to other divinities. Their meaning of true would not have been a philosophical meaning, incidentally, but more like [the one loyal to us: monolatry was their relationship]. That conceptualisation was a failing of Ancient Israel. Nowadays, with NT enlightenment, and good philosophical training, I see no justification in talking in terms which imply a distinct deity/divinity, as if we have the god of the hills, and others have the god of the valleys. Ie, we have gotten beyond 1 Kg.20:28! Nowadays we should be able to see that there is no true god, because there is no false god: God alone is God.

Like yourselves, I dismiss the History of Religions, school. But like Luther’s drunk, we can err in the opposite direction, and if an enemy says a man is black, I need not say that the man must be white. Such so-called critical attacks have forced some deeper reflection and blessed the church, thus the world, although also causing carnage.

You agree, in your terms not mine, that Ancient Israel [fell back into the worship of false gods]. I tried to say that if Moses had had a strong mandate to teach strong monotheism, then he failed to such an extent that even Joshua hadn’t read the memo. So had Moses such an insight and a mandate to pass it on? I don’t think so.

[…the Egyptian deities]. I would not call such ideas, deities, since that presumes polytheism. At most I’d suggest caution marks, or italics. But it was a poetical presentation. I think that Moses, and the Tanak at large, was poetic, and that its poetic prose was often framed in polytheiism. I think that polytheism also had lodging in the mind of Moses. Thus the ten hits against Khem were taken as his divinity (Yahweh) defeating other divinities, not a denial that other divinities existed. We do not need to subscribe to their ancient thinking.

As to dating the Pentateuch to Midian, I doubt that. Did Moses flee with tomes of ancient documents in his saddlebags? I speculate that he accessed such records from Egypt, lodged by Jacob, once he returned as an ambassador. But that’s another story. Nor do I accept him as a prince of Egypt, though he might have been a polytheist, having a Terah-Abraham conversion even before the bush. That he totally discarded ANE polytheism, and kept all his writings and thoughts within strict monotheism, I simply do not see from the evidence. And I do not see that we should still speak in polytheistic terms, or that we should conceal any such OT traces by an artificial capitalisation to [God] when it’s about Yahweh (whether from hostile or friendly sides), and simply have [god] when it’s not about him.

Shalom
 
Yahweh was often deemed to be “an elohim”, as you say. Likewise ba’al can mean master/lord, and arguable there were many baalim, many lords. Sometime capitalising to Baal, like with the Master in Dr. Who?, is justified translation. My take of Ex.3:15 is not of monotheism, but a subspecies of polytheism, the common language. I suspect that you read monotheism into it; I do not read monotheism out of it.

I habitually practice reading out of the Bible (exegesis) what it says rather than reading into the Bible (eisegesis) what I think is there. The elohim terms used in Exodus 3:15 were all talking about Yahweh God in context. There were no other deities in that passage to pull polytheism out of it.

I do not hold the Tablet Theory, but with R K Harrison (if memory serves), have no problem with Moses using both literary and non-literary sources from such as Abraham, who broke from his father Terah’s worship. Incidentally I don’t buy into the murder theory: Moses committed manslaughter, but not all manslaughter is murder.
That's fair enough, the Tablet theory is not widely accepted, but I feel it has explanatory power outside of God dictating or showing Moses the beginnings for him to pen Genesis. Murder vs. Manslaughter is semantics to me.

I advocate highlighting God’s exclusive title, when the context presumes monotheism, but honouring the authentic culture when cloaked in the misyts of polytheism. Moving somewhat from Moses, I’d agree with the NASB and render 1 Kg.20:28 as [man of God…“Yahweh says…‘a god of…a god of…I am Yahweh’”]. Would you? The line was spoken by an Israelite prophet to Israel, reporting the polytheistic milieu of the Arameans. Do you affirm such polytheistic speech about Yahweh from his opposition, without affirming polytheistic speech from the lips of his people?
We have a disagreement on honoring the "authentic culture when cloaked in the mists of polytheism" as I said earlier, the only argument I see fitting for this is that the Israelites were influenced by culture around them, but that is presented within the text of scripture as a wrong thing when it's highlighted and never something to be embraced. Moses, may have been influenced by Egyptian culture, but when he started penning the Pentateuch, he had been in the presence and teachings of the Lord coming to an understanding of who was God and who wasn't. I do believe this and my prior statement answers your question. But to be clear, whether Moses started off polytheistic before meeting Yahweh, he stopped being polytheistic at that point and was not polytheistic when he penned the Pentateuch/Torah. I don't see Moses as writing down his own musings about God, but as we see in the Biblical narrative, Moses talked with God and learned from God about God.

The culture at large around Israel being polytheistic was something I mentioned earlier. I don't see their influence as having any bearing on how Moses formed the foundation of the Pentateuch/Torah, nor the Prophets forming the additional foundation, nor the Ketuvim.

In regard to 1 Kings 20:28, this seems to be clear and in according with what you said. A prophet repeating the words of the Arameans/Syrians to the King. It's doing a similar thing that I pointed out in Exodus 3:15, using elohim as a descriptive, explanatory, understood word for spirit beings, non-human-entities.

I don’t know who [orthodox Jews] are, but I know that some orthodox Judaics (a religious, not an ethnic, belief) nowadays even avoids saying [God], less so when ethnic Jews are Christians (spiritual Jews). The ‘ancient’ C1 Greek was what we’d call capital text, uncial, or majuscule. More recent texts (c.C9) used minuscule, and only then we can pick up mixes of lower/uppercase. And such decisions were not canonical. But the Q remains about whether Moses was a thoroughgoing monotheist, and from there, how best to render Moses’ then position authentically.
Orthodox Judaism v. Orthodox Jews I see as semantics here, but I get what you're saying.
The New Testament is written primarily in Koine/Hellenistic Greek which does have uppercase letters. They're generally found at the beginning of paragraphs, sentences depending on author or publisher, proper names, and sometimes the beginning of quotations. While it's true that it's not a consistent practice across the board, it's there. I'm not sure if this will come up properly, but here is one example from the Codex Bezae from about 400 AD: https://cudl.lib.cam.ac.uk/view/MS-NN-00002-00041/16 and while they don't have them all, you might investigate some of the manuscript images here.

What does it matter whether the MT or TRs have [blasphemy] as Βλασφημιας or βλασφημιας, as if to highlight Blasphemy in this context? Do you prefer to translate, [he is Blaspheming]? The [he is] part of the line is in fact in λαλει [he is speaking/he speaks], and if you wish to capitalise the speaker, that’s the word which would have been capitalised: ie Λαλει. In any case, that’s IMO a red herring, as if someone tells me that since the NKJV has [Why does this Man] for that same text, then whenever Jesus is spoken of as a man, we should capitalise in respect. I have no intention of following any quirks within the MT or its subset. The Gospel context was one of disrespect—[How can this fellow]: CJB.
MT is one of many manuscripts we have to corroborate for translation and evidence for what we believe. I didn't bring it up as some authority thing or KJV only thing or any misunderstanding you may have gotten from it. I was simply being conversational about the generality of the whole issue.

In any case, the passage in the Greek is as so:
τί οὗτος οὕτως λαλεῖ; βλασφημεῖ· τίς δύναται ἀφιέναι ἁμαρτίας εἰ μὴ εἷς ὁ θεός;
Both λαλεῖ and βλασφημεῖ capture their own phrases due to the form. They are both in 3rd person singular. The εῖ at the end indicates this and can be translated as "he/she/it does some action." In this case, λαλεῖ is "he/she/it called/spoke/said/taught/etc. as the word has a variety of definitions depending on context." Likewise, βλασφημεῖ due to the form means "he/she/it spoke reproachfully/spoke evilly/railed/reviled/blasphemed." The reason I said it could be translated as "He blasphemed" or "It is blasphemy" or "This man blasphemed" is because of the form of the word in the Greek. All three fit the context of the passage and all three options are grammatically acceptable and all three mean the same thing nor do they change the intent of the original author. And βλασφημεῖ is capitalized in all Greek versions that I pulled up hence the reason the first word is capitalized in the translations. To give further information, it's capitalized because of the semicolon there after λαλεῖ, which indicates a question mark and thus the end of a sentence so as I said earlier, the first letter in the next sentence is capitalized according to Greek grammar. Just like we tend to do in English.

I deliberately did not say [the one true god]. The article would presume validity. My point partly is that Ancient Israel would have had such polytheistic (thus mistaken) terms as if Yahweh was a true god, and describe him by many adjectives as a type of god, since it fitted their fuzzy theism. They happily contrasted their divinity (as they perceived God to be) to other divinities. Their meaning of true would not have been a philosophical meaning, incidentally, but more like [the one loyal to us: monolatry was their relationship]. That conceptualisation was a failing of Ancient Israel. Nowadays, with NT enlightenment, and good philosophical training, I see no justification in talking in terms which imply a distinct deity/divinity, as if we have the god of the hills, and others have the god of the valleys. Ie, we have gotten beyond 1 Kg.20:28! Nowadays we should be able to see that there is no true god, because there is no false god: God alone is God.
I don't see any real evidence of this. About the only evidence I see in the Biblical text of more than one "god"-being is the Divine Council concept that I'm sure you're familiar with and the Two Powers in Heaven concept which alludes to Trinitarian doctrine in the New Testament and, of course, mention of other false deities. The only one there that could be argued is a positive thing is the Two Powers in Heaven stuff. All of the Divine Council rebelled and the false deities are self-explanatory.

Like yourselves, I dismiss the History of Religions, school. But like Luther’s drunk, we can err in the opposite direction, and if an enemy says a man is black, I need not say that the man must be white. Such so-called critical attacks have forced some deeper reflection and blessed the church, thus the world, although also causing carnage.
Fair enough.

Well this got too long, so to be continued.
 
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You agree, in your terms not mine, that Ancient Israel [fell back into the worship of false gods]. I tried to say that if Moses had had a strong mandate to teach strong monotheism, then he failed to such an extent that even Joshua hadn’t read the memo. So had Moses such an insight and a mandate to pass it on? I don’t think so.
I see what you're saying now, if that's what you've been saying. Perhaps I misunderstood you earlier and have consistently misunderstood what it is you've been actually trying to say through all of this. I can agree that Moses taught monotheism and Israel fell away, but I would submit that's more of a failing based on man's sin nature and not Moses' own failings in teaching. Throughout the Biblical narrative we see Israel and it's leaders failing to separate itself properly and thus getting consistently seduced into idolatry.

[…the Egyptian deities]. I would not call such ideas, deities, since that presumes polytheism. At most I’d suggest caution marks, or italics. But it was a poetical presentation. I think that Moses, and the Tanak at large, was poetic, and that its poetic prose was often framed in polytheiism. I think that polytheism also had lodging in the mind of Moses. Thus the ten hits against Khem were taken as his divinity (Yahweh) defeating other divinities, not a denial that other divinities existed. We do not need to subscribe to their ancient thinking.
We disagree that Moses' mind was lodged in polytheism when he penned the books. As I said, I see no real evidence of that within the text of scripture given the themes laid out within. I also don't see anything in the text as poetic unless it's written as so structurally or obvious as so. We diverge on that as well as I try to habitually let the Bible tell it what it means with proper Hermeneutics and understanding of the languages. Yes, the cultural aspect plays a factor, but to a point in accordance with how the Bible uses its language and employment of cultural themes, etc.


As to dating the Pentateuch to Midian, I doubt that. Did Moses flee with tomes of ancient documents in his saddlebags? I speculate that he accessed such records from Egypt, lodged by Jacob, once he returned as an ambassador. But that’s another story. Nor do I accept him as a prince of Egypt, though he might have been a polytheist, having a Terah-Abraham conversion even before the bush. That he totally discarded ANE polytheism, and kept all his writings and thoughts within strict monotheism, I simply do not see from the evidence. And I do not see that we should still speak in polytheistic terms, or that we should conceal any such OT traces by an artificial capitalisation to [God] when it’s about Yahweh (whether from hostile or friendly sides), and simply have [god] when it’s not about him.

Shalom
I still say you're too hung up on capitalization. Whether we capitalize God, He, Him, His, etc. when in reference to God is not a gigantic issue creating a false understanding of God vs. other "deities." It's not why people pick up the Bible and see monotheism throughout it. They see that because the context of themes and concepts laid within the Biblical narrative are clear enough to understand that Moses and the Israelites decried polytheism and embraced monotheism. Had some of them embraced it before they turned to monotheism? Some of them, as in individuals, maybe families (Jacob's narrative with Rachel bringing her father's 'gods' in Gen 31:19 comes to mind), but incidents like that showing the failings of the human by way of sin nature? Did some of them do that? Sure.

Good day. God Bless.
 
I find it curious that nowadays, a Christian can talk polytheistically to a Muslim about “your god”; a Muslim can talk polytheistically to a Christian about “your god”; and they both agree that there is no god but God/Allah.

My apologies for the late reply. I had other stuff going on yesterday,

If I may, Vinnie, I think your primary problem here is simply a matter of semantics. The word "god" as we use it today has two distinct meanings. You seem to be attempting to limit its use to the first definition while wanting to eliminate the second:

1. (in Christianity and other monotheistic religions) the Creator and Ruler of the universe, and the Source of all moral authority; the Supreme Being.

2. (in certain other religions) a superhuman being or spirit worshiped as having power over nature or human fortunes; a deity.

A spirit worshipped as having power over human fortunes is how the Jews understood the term "god" when applied to those beings worshipped by the Egyptians, the Canaanites, the Babylonians, etc. IMO, they were not honoring polytheism when they used this term, but simply acknowledging that the Pagan peoples worshipped elohim other than Yahweh the Creator.
But you are dealing with a different can; my Q was not how Jesus or Paul or David handled monotheism, but How did Moses?

The problem with supposing progressive revelation with regard to no one other than Yahweh being God, and also suggesting Moses was not a full-on monotheist, is that Deuteronomy states Moses was a direct mouthpiece of the Lord Himself. To suppose his statements taught or suggested anything other than monotheism would be to assert God was somehow denying Himself. And as far as any of Moses' personal views were concerned, they never came into view. He didn't speak his own opinions. He spoke only what God gave Him to speak.

Speaking of the Messiah:

"The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among you, from your brothers—it is to him you shall listen— just as you desired of the Lord your God at Horeb on the day of the assembly, when you said, ‘Let me not hear again the voice of the Lord my God or see this great fire any more, lest I die.’ And the Lord said to me, ‘They are right in what they have spoken. I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers. And I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him. And whoever will not listen to My words that he shall speak in my name, I myself will require it of him.” (Deuteronomy 18:15-16).
 
I see what you're saying now, if that's what you've been saying. Perhaps I misunderstood you earlier and have consistently misunderstood what it is you've been actually trying to say through all of this. I can agree that Moses taught monotheism and Israel fell away, but I would submit that's more of a failing based on man's sin nature and not Moses' own failings in teaching. Throughout the Biblical narrative we see Israel and it's leaders failing to separate itself properly and thus getting consistently seduced into idolatry.


We disagree that Moses' mind was lodged in polytheism when he penned the books. As I said, I see no real evidence of that within the text of scripture given the themes laid out within. I also don't see anything in the text as poetic unless it's written as so structurally or obvious as so. We diverge on that as well as I try to habitually let the Bible tell it what it means with proper Hermeneutics and understanding of the languages. Yes, the cultural aspect plays a factor, but to a point in accordance with how the Bible uses its language and employment of cultural themes, etc.



I still say you're too hung up on capitalization. Whether we capitalize God, He, Him, His, etc. when in reference to God is not a gigantic issue creating a false understanding of God vs. other "deities." It's not why people pick up the Bible and see monotheism throughout it. They see that because the context of themes and concepts laid within the Biblical narrative are clear enough to understand that Moses and the Israelites decried polytheism and embraced monotheism. Had some of them embraced it before they turned to monotheism? Some of them, as in individuals, maybe families (Jacob's narrative with Rachel bringing her father's 'gods' in Gen 31:19 comes to mind), but incidents like that showing the failings of the human by way of sin nature? Did some of them do that? Sure.

Good day. God Bless.
I’ve been focused elsewhere of late. Apologies for my delay. Perhaps I should also be briefer.

Ex.3:15 is, IMO, one of many places (eg v6) where a monotheist can think the text to be monotheistic, even if it is not. If we presume elohim to always mean nondeity, unless where it clearly defines Yahweh (however we put the tetragrammaton), that makes it easy enough. This is the Divine Council argument of Heiser, if memory serves, and I gather this forms part of your hermeneutical glasses. My POV, allowing elohim to have a range of meaning, is that where Yahweh is mentioned as elohim alongside elohim (eg Ex.20:2-3), particularly in pagan circles, no qualitative distinction is to be presumed. Would, say, Joshua’s hearers have ‘heard’ him say that they could either choose God—the sole creator of the universe and all life and spirits—or the miscellaneous spirits created by him (Jos.24)? No competition. Given an option of marrying a woman or a Barbie Doll, I was always gonna marry a woman (put poetically): put philosophically, I could not have married other than a woman—lol, it’s just an illustration. If elohim to Joshua’s audience, had sounded like real alternatives, that to me makes better sense of the text, akin to marrying woman A or woman B. And if that was what Joshua’s audience ‘heard’, again we may ask, What had Moses taught Israel re elohim?

I do not merely say that Israel fell away—though it did—but that Moses himself never quite kept his head above polytheistic water.

Murder vs. Manslaughter might be semantics to you, but in ancient days folk appreciated having a city of refuge, just in case. And, one might ask, did Yahweh prohibit murder yet command the murder of the Canaanites? C S Lewis: “All killing is not murder any more than all sexual intercourse is adultery.”

I would be chary to use the term [the Lord], unless adonai is intended, and not Yahweh. But on the point discussed, I would suggest that if Moses was raised decisively above the polytheiism/polytheism of Egypt, it does not strike me that he was mandated to raise his people out of it, as if it was deemed relatively unimportant—what you might call semantics. For my money, strands above and below that waterline, appear in the Pentateuch, and we should not hide either. You say: I see no real evidence; I say: I see real evidence. Like Captain Wentworth (Jane Austen’s Persuasion), I think we can disagree world without end: “When once married people begin to attack me with,—‘Oh! you will think very differently, when you are married.’ I can only say, ‘No, I shall not;’ and then they say again, ‘Yes, you will,’ and there is an end of it.”

On the original autographs, differentiations between majuscules and minuscules were not used within those writings, which is my context. On Mk.2:7, I had simply looked at the MT reading, but see what you mean in the WH about a third person singular, and agree that if using the WH, λαλει need not be addressed, although one might expect that since it is also about Jesus, it too might have been capitalised. Anyway, I should have checked before firing off. I’m unsure why you actually quote it in lowercase [βλασφημεῖ τίς…], when you are arguing for upper case [Βλασφημει τις…]. That said, my question stands: So what?

I do not subscribe to the Two Powers concept, which to my mind is more bitheism than binitarianism. Systematising the NT data on trinitarianism, was quite a history of trial & error, suggestions and rebuttals. Do you, BTW, subscribe to trinitarianism, one eternal being/society, of three uncreated persons? Some good Christians don’t; I do. I reject the concept of false deities, since I reject the concept, deities, though it looks to me as though Moses did not, though he will now. I do think that The Silmarillion has a useful take of any Divine (not deific) Council.

By poetical, I comprehend even terms in isolation. I would argue that ANE polytheism (poetical) was in fact more polytheiism (philosophical)—ie that their conceptual thinking/talk was as if many deities, but at best were really about many divinities (created spirits). I argue that Sinai was Level 2 education, while the NT carries tertiary Level trinitarianism.

Re. capitalisation of elohim/theos, I do not say that monotheism is based on it, but that polytheism can be hidden by it.

Shalom
 
My apologies for the late reply. I had other stuff going on yesterday,

If I may, Vinnie, I think your primary problem here is simply a matter of semantics. The word "god" as we use it today has two distinct meanings. You seem to be attempting to limit its use to the first definition while wanting to eliminate the second:

1. (in Christianity and other monotheistic religions) the Creator and Ruler of the universe, and the Source of all moral authority; the Supreme Being.

2. (in certain other religions) a superhuman being or spirit worshiped as having power over nature or human fortunes; a deity.

A spirit worshipped as having power over human fortunes is how the Jews understood the term "god" when applied to those beings worshipped by the Egyptians, the Canaanites, the Babylonians, etc. IMO, they were not honoring polytheism when they used this term, but simply acknowledging that the Pagan peoples worshipped elohim other than Yahweh the Creator.


The problem with supposing progressive revelation with regard to no one other than Yahweh being God, and also suggesting Moses was not a full-on monotheist, is that Deuteronomy states Moses was a direct mouthpiece of the Lord Himself. To suppose his statements taught or suggested anything other than monotheism would be to assert God was somehow denying Himself. And as far as any of Moses' personal views were concerned, they never came into view. He didn't speak his own opinions. He spoke only what God gave Him to speak.

Speaking of the Messiah:

"The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among you, from your brothers—it is to him you shall listen— just as you desired of the Lord your God at Horeb on the day of the assembly, when you said, ‘Let me not hear again the voice of the Lord my God or see this great fire any more, lest I die.’ And the Lord said to me, ‘They are right in what they have spoken. I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers. And I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him. And whoever will not listen to My words that he shall speak in my name, I myself will require it of him.” (Deuteronomy 18:15-16).
My apologies for an even later reply.

I presume your definitions to be lifted from a dictionary. Fine, dictionaries list monotheism and polytheism. But it’s not their job to say which (if any) is correct. I would have us within Christianity, to be correct, and also to biblically trace monotheism. Hence my challenge to ask ourselves, What kind of theist was Moses?

I’m a little unsure why you limited matters to the Jews, when the Q is more about a non-Jew, Moses, and how he perceived Yahweh to be as regards elohism. IMO he was not honouring polytheism, but simply falling back to that default idea, while having gleams above—as Trinity briefly rises above the clouds, in Matrix 3.

Instead of [was a direct mouthpiece of the Lord Himself], I would rather say, [was a direct mouthpiece of the LORD himself], or best, [was a direct mouthpiece of Yahweh himself]. Decapping Tyndale’s LORD to Lord, too easily falls into Sabellianism: Jesus is not Yahweh; Yahweh is not Jesus; Jesus is lord. To copy/paste OT text, can sadly subtract proper capitalisation: thus you unintentionally misquote Dt.18:15-6, where even the ESV has full caps (Tyndale’s bridging method). For a proper quote, the CAPS need adding back. However, though it says, [The LORD your God], I’d have [Yahweh your god], to reflect the level of theism I deem to be present in the text, a particular god, though we now know that in fact what seemed a type of god to his people, is in fact the only god, God. “We do not believe in a god—for this would imply a possible or conceivable multiplication of gods—but only in God” (George Tyrrell’s Lex Orandi, 1903:76 slightly altered).

I am happy with the idea that even as Jesus could teach in parables, so Yahweh could teach in the polytheism of his people. I dub that secondary education (Sinai level), where such fuzziness was allowed students: at a primary level, see Ac.17:30; atheism is pre-educational. That said, I argue that Moses had hints on what some call philosophical monotheism—eg the creation story. That Moses taught as Yahweh inspired him (I agree), does not mean that Yahweh always inspired him at the highest level. Would we nowadays assert trinitarianism (as I do), and that Moses always (if ever) spoke as a trinitarian?
 
when the Q is more about a non-Jew, Moses

?

Moses was a Levite, born to Amram and Yocheved.
I presume your definitions to be lifted from a dictionary. Fine, dictionaries list monotheism and polytheism. But it’s not their job to say which (if any) is correct. I would have us within Christianity, to be correct, and also to biblically trace monotheism. Hence my challenge to ask ourselves, What kind of theist was Moses?

Vinnie, your responses are getting strange. My definitions are commonly understood.
Instead of [was a direct mouthpiece of the Lord Himself], I would rather say, [was a direct mouthpiece of the LORD himself], or best, [was a direct mouthpiece of Yahweh himself]. Decapping Tyndale’s LORD to Lord, too easily falls into Sabellianism: Jesus is not Yahweh; Yahweh is not Jesus; Jesus is lord. To copy/paste OT text, can sadly subtract proper capitalisation: thus you unintentionally misquote Dt.18:15-6,

Ok, I'm out, Lol.

God bless, Vinnie, and maybe next time.
- H
 
I grant the Pentateuch to be substantially Moses’, but deem his monotheism to be cloudy. For instance, while Genesis is clear that Yahweh is a.k.a Elohim (God/deity), Moses often used polytheistic monolatry expressions, as if Yahweh was a god, but their sole and exclusive god—and other nations had their own gods/goddesses. Bible translations hide this by artificially capitalising polytheistic terms [viz God instead of god], a bit like some capitalise pronouns about Jesus [eg He instead of he].

John Wesley accepted that everlasting salvation was globally accessible without evangelism (philosophical soteriology), but he got on with his calling to evangelise (pragmatic soteriology).

Similarly, I suspect that Moses’ mind grasped that one alone, Yahweh, was God/deity (philosophical monotheism), but that as a shepherd Moses spoke to his sheep in less exalted terms of monolatry (worship only Yahweh: pragmatic monotheism?), as if Sinai did not need to insist on strict monotheism.

Ex.32:11: And Moses besought Yahweh his god…

Lv.19:4: Do not…cast images of gods for yourselves; I am Yahweh your god.
Since God said he does not talk to Moses in dreams and metaphors (more or less) but straight face to face as a man talks to his friend, he was the best kind of theist. Moses understood so much more of God than most if not all theologians today, it is not funny. Few theology even hear from God at all in any way, shape or form. Moses knew Jesus was coming. He knew the time of Jacobs trouble (great tribulation) was some and a whole lot more.
 
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