I believe the world would be a better place if we did obey the Torah...It is a guide to righteousness, not a death sentence as many would believe.
The world would be a better place if you sacraficed? The world would be a better place if people were stoned for adultry instead of being able to be forgiven for sin? I don't follow your logic here?
The Logic is very simple Sehad....and I'll ask you this question....Would you be more apt to commit the sin "ie. Murder" if you knew you would be stoned if caught? For me....death by stoning would be a sufficent deterent....If you don't agree that severe punishment as a sufficient deterent then we will have to agree to disagree on this point.
Sehad, technically Jesus didn't have the authority to condemn her (unto a physical death), only the religious leaders could condemn her (if evidence was supplied). However, as God's representative on earth, he acting on God's behalf could forgive her. God, who is creator of the Law can also change the Law at his whim. In any event, I searched on the topic of Adultery on http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com to see what the crime and punishment were and I found this little bit.....
I think you would agree with me that GOD had the right to enforce this law.
Of course...
John 10:30 "I and my Father are one"
John 14:0 "Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?"
John 5:30 "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me."
Safe to say that Jesus was here to do the will of the Father.
Agreed...It is God's wish that no one sin....IMO
Am I mistaken or is Jesus going to be the judge in Revelation?
He is going to be "a" Judge....God is the ultimate Judge.
As a matter of fact, Jesus is the ONLY ONE that had the right to condem this woman.
Not so....God gave the authority to judge according to the Law to the Jewish leaders...Technically, Jesus was not one of the Jewish leaders....
I know GOD created the Law but why would he hold the entire OT to it then all of a sudden change it?
Good question...the answer....he didn't, man did.
......If the woman refused to submit to the ordeal, and there was circumstantial evidence of her criminality, she was obliged to separate from her husband (Soṭah, i. 5). Whatever may have been the actual significance of this ordeal when first established, within Talmudic times it had merely a moral meaning. It was simply a test under which the woman, if guilty, was likely to succumb and confess. R. Akiba says:
"Only when the man is himself free from guilt, will the waters be an effective test of his wife's guilt or innocence; but if he has been guilty of illicit intercourse, the waters will have no effect";
and he based his opinion on a text in Hosea, iv. 14 (Sifre, Naso, 21; Soṭah, 47b).
In the light of this rabbinical dictum, the saying of Jesus in the case of the woman taken in Adultery acquires a new meaning. To those asking for her punishment, he replied, "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her" (John, viii. 7).
http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view. ... h=adultery
What does this mean?
Means...that Jesus was making a statement not uncommon in Judaism....
and as far as my research tells me....Adultery was punishable by Strangulation, not Stoning.
Does it really matter what the punishment would be?
Just trying to be consistent....If the men were going to stone her, they were doing something illegal.
The story in John chapter 8 says that Moses's law said to stone her. In all of the Old Testimate readings I cannot find where it says stoning or strangulation. You must agree with me that this was an act punishable by death though, however it may be. We just have to 'assume' that in this case it was stoning.
The short research I've done on it, yes it was a punishment that required death....but it was the hardest crime to prove....there certainly are some "if's" to this situation...and I don't know the Jewish legal system.
A moot question, Jesus wasn't caught in the act of adultery...maybe he was following his own advice of not judging.
But Jesus says in scripture that he is come to do the will of the Father, he and the father are one, if you've seen me you've seen the father. How could he say that then contradict the law of the father?
Did he contradict the law of his Father?....I'm not so sure he did. Jesus wasn't holding criminal court against the woman...he was asked what his opinion was. We don't know the whole story of the case, so....
Mark 3:24-25
And if a kingdom be divided against itself, that kingdom cannot stand.
And if a house be divided against itself, that house cannot stand.
If Jesus's teachings or actions did not reflect the will or teachings of the Father, then this is all for nothing and no point to any of it.
Agreed....
So either Jesus DID the will of the Father in all his actions and deeds, or the kingdom cannot stand. Then how can Jesus letting this woman go do the will of the Father?
As I have stated.....there may be more to the behind the scenes situation of the story...The story obviously focuses on forgiveness and repentence....a concept much more important than the Legalities of the Law. God forgives, as Jesus forgave.....even if the Law is broken. I think Jesus is consistent with God's will.
another moot question, since the Torah will be in effect during the Messianic Millennial Kingdom period.
Proof?
Jer 31:33 But this [shall be] the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
Eze 43:12 This [is] the law of the house; Upon the top of the mountain the whole limit thereof round about [shall be] most holy. Behold, this [is] the law of the house.
Mic 4:2 And many nations shall come, and say, Come, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, and to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for the law shall go forth of Zion, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.
Eze 44:5 And the LORD said unto me, Son of man, mark well, and behold with thine eyes, and hear with thine ears all that I say unto thee concerning all the ordinances of the house of the LORD, and all the laws thereof; and mark well the entering in of the house, with every going forth of the sanctuary.
Eze 44:24 And in controversy they shall stand in judgment; [and] they shall judge it according to my judgments: and they shall keep my laws and my statutes in all mine assemblies; and they shall hallow my sabbaths.
Eze 36:27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do [them].
Eze 37:24 And David my servant [shall be] king over them; and they all shall have one shepherd: they shall also walk in my judgments, and observe my statutes, and do them.
Isa 2:3 And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.
Eze 43:12 This [is] the law of the house; Upon the top of the mountain the whole limit thereof round about [shall be] most holy. Behold, this [is] the law of the house.
Mic 4:2 And many nations shall come, and say, Come, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, and to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for the law shall go forth of Zion, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.
These are all Messianic Kingdom passages....and there are more...
Can you please show me Jesus' devised Torah? I ask this because there are a lot of people who think that Jesus taught a commandment that supersedes the Father's commandments. This is taught, but it isn't Biblical. This is a supposition...in other words, theologians in the past needed to come up with an answer to an obvious Pauline dilemma. Since the Paul (or pseudo Paul) of the Letters appears to teach Torah abstinence, and Jesus himself commands us to obey his commandment as given by the Father, they mistakenly think that this is a newer set of commandments which supersede the Mosaic law....
: I have been following Jesus and apostles' teachings in the NT. They are just my assumptions 
:!