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Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
The word of the Father as in these last days God has spoken to us by His Son. The God who thundered the words "This is MY SON whom I love with Him I am well pleased " The Holy Spirit does speak what He hears and bears witness as in "those that listen to and learn from The Father go to the Son" The Spirit searches the deep thoughts of the mind of the Spirit and carries out that will.
In an attempt to bring some clarification as to what you believe:
I believe the invisible God is YHWH (the Father) and His Son is Yeshua (Jesus).
You are reading the Son into the text. Who is the "servant" in that verse? Israel. Israel's God is YHWH. Consider that in the light of Acts 3:13;
Again, you are reading the Son into the text.
God was not "physically formed". He is a Spirit (John 4:24). The "God" of Isa 43:10 that you are referring to is Father YHWH, the Father of Yeshua.
I would put it this way; YHWH sent His Son into our world and was made flesh to save us from our sins. He became known as Yeshua Messiah in the New Testament.
Good. I agree.
The reading of the earliest and best manuscripts is not “God” but rather “he who.” Most modern versions have corrected this erroneous reading of the KJV.
Yeshua did not correct him because Thomas did NOT say "GOD". He spoke either Hebrew or Aramaic, not English. In both languages, the word translated "God" was used in reference to men. Even in Greek, the language in which we received this verse, the word "theos" is used of men as well. Thomas would have said, "My lord and my mighty one" or something similar.
The Greek of John 8:58 is not the same as the Greek Septuagint for Exodus 3:14.
Gen 2:4 uses "YHWH Elohim". By using YHWH, it is identifying which elohim. Elohim is not a "Plural Name". It is a title that appears in plural form, but can be either singular or plural depending on the context. Its plural sense can be seen in Ex.12:12, "For I will pass through the land of Egypt this night, and will smite all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, both man and beast; and against all the gods (elohim) of Egypt I will execute judgment: I am Yahweh." Its singular sense can be seen in 1 Sam.5:7, ". . . and upon Dagon our god (elohim)" and 2 Kgs.1:2, ". . . Go, enquire of Baal-zebub the god (elohim) of Ekron whether I shall recover of this disease."
If YHWH is the Son's name, then what is the Father's name? YHWH did NOT become a man and die because YHWH has inherent immortality. Those who have seen the Son have not literally seen the Father, but only the express image of Him (Heb 1:3). No man has seen the Father/God (John 5:37; 1Jo 4:12)
You added the words "(in physical form)". The Hebrew word can be understood literally or figuratively. God has never been seen by man. It was the Angel of YHWH that our fathers were seeing. He was the representative of YHWH.
Sorry Bill, but you have that backwards. It is the first three verses of John that must be reconciled with the entirety of Scripture.
Did the Father create as well or just the Son?
That does not harmonize with Acts 3:13;
Father YHWH. Those words are addressed to "him that sits on the throne" (vss.9-10). In Rev 5:6-7 we see the Lamb taking the book out of the right hand of "him that sat upon the throne." The Creator sits on the throne and the Lamb stands before Him.
I'm sorry to see youŕe going to try nit picking but it will not stand. It matters not in the least where you come from, I begin at John 1 and you, say, with Isaiah 53 but it makes no difference, all scripture 'must' be reconciled for it is written to one audience, man, and is inspired, authored through secretaries, by one author, God. Jesus, the Son, God, the Father and the Holy Spirit, three persons, one God, not created but always have been. Jesus, the Son, created as the Father wills.
The reading of the earliest and best manuscripts is not “God” but rather “he who.” Most modern versions have corrected this erroneous reading of the KJV.
Yeshua did not correct him because Thomas did NOT say "GOD". He spoke either Hebrew or Aramaic, not English. In both languages, the word translated "God" was used in reference to men. Even in Greek, the language in which we received this verse, the word "theos" is used of men as well. Thomas would have said, "My lord and my mighty one" or something similar.
The Greek of John 8:58 is not the same as the Greek Septuagint for Exodus 3:14.
In the Greek Septuagint (LXX), Ex 3:14 reads,
In Septuagint English it reads, "And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE BEING; and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, THE BEING has sent me to you."
In KJV English it reads, "And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you."
In John 8:58, "I am" is "" in Greek. As you can see, "" in Ex 3:14 is just the prelude to what the Almighty really wanted the Israelites to know, that is, that He was the "" or "the Being" or "the Existing One".
If Yeshua truly wanted to tell the Jews he was the great "I am" of Ex 3:14, he would have said, "Before Abraham was I am the Being" or "I am the Existing One
May I ask where you got your degrees in biblical Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew?