Who was Jesus?

[John Zain]

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Please see post #2
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[John Zain]

“… do not be afraid to take to you Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit.
And she will bring forth a Son, and you (Joseph) shall call His name JESUS …” (Matthew 1:20-21)

“… Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,”
which is translated, “God with us.” (Matthew 1:23, quoting Isaiah 7:14)

“And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bring forth a Son, and shall call His name JESUS.
… He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Highest
… The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest will overshadow you;
therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born will be called the Son of God.” (Luke 1:31-35)

I find it quite interesting that Gabriel said to CALL the future Baby: “Jesus”, “the Son of God”,
“Immanuel”, and “the Son of the Highest” … but Gabriel did NOT say that the Baby WAS these things.
Jesus really WAS the Son of God because the Holy Spirit (God) obviously played the role of His father.
This is the ONLY time this has ever happened, so Jesus truly was God's unique “ONLY-begotten” Son.

This “Jesus” was a new and very unique creation
“In the beginning was the Word (the Logos), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
… And the Word (the Logos) became flesh and dwelt among us” (John 1:1,14).
Let us stress the fact that the Word (the Logos), the Second Person of the Trinity, BECAME Jesus Christ.
A technicality … Since this “Jesus” actually was a new creation, and was “fully God and fully man”,
He could NOT possibly have been in Heaven previously, let alone been part of the Triune Godhead.
And, is there any evidence that “the Son of God” was ever in Heaven prior to the birth of Jesus Christ?

What did the Holy Spirit accomplish when He “overshadowed” Mary?
Why does Scripture emphasize that Jesus did NOT have a human father and a normal conception?
He could very easily have had BOTH a normal conception AND the Holy Spirit overshadowing Him.
Some Bibles correctly state that Mary and Joseph were Jesus’ “parents”, not His mother and “father”.
Mary “conceived” in her womb (Luke 1:31) … so IMO, the Holy Spirit provided the male sperm/seed
for the fertilizing of the female ovum/egg … as opposed to Him performing a creative miracle.
This meant that the “Holy One” (Luke 1:35) would NOT have man’s inherited sin nature.
The highly-acclaimed NKJV Study Bible says the term “Holy One” refers to Jesus’ sinlessness.
Jesus NOT having man’s sin nature was the ONLY possible way that He could live a totally sinless life
… and to be the absolutely perfect, spotless, blameless, sacrificial Lamb of God (to pay for our sins)!
Jesus being “holy … separate from sinners” (Heb. 7:26) means He did NOT have man’s sin nature.

More on man’s inherited sin nature
Mary was a normal flesh and blood human with a sin nature … so IMO,
this proves the sin nature is passed down in man's sperm/seed, and not in the blood.
There are many Scripture verses which teach that ALL humans have a sin nature.
As far as I know, ALL of the famous Bible commentaries teach this truth.
Having man’s “flesh and blood” (Heb. 2:14-17) and coming “in the likeness of sinful flesh” (Rom. 8:3)
simply means that Jesus came looking like a man, but it does NOT mean Jesus had man’s sin nature.
Paul teaches that man is held captive to “the law of sin and death” (Romans 8:2 and 7:23-25).
This “law” of sin (which leads to spiritual death) simply means that ALL men MUST sin!
However, Jesus did NOT have this problem because He did NOT have man’s sin nature.

 

[John Zain]

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The Word (Logos) [the Second Person of the Trinity] was sent by Father God,
and became flesh (Jesus). John 1:14

At this point in time, this ONE born of Mary began being CALLED "Jesus"
and "the Son of God", as per the instructions of Gabriel. Luke 1:31-35

When Jesus was on earth, was the Word (Logos) NO longer allowed to speak???

When Jesus said things such as:
"Gee, I was with the Father (and shared His glory) for the last trillion years!"
... why cannot this actually be the Word (Logos) talking?

When Jesus walked the earth, the "fully God" part of Him was NOT Jesus, it was the Word (Logos) ... because it was the Word (Logos) who became Jesus in da foist place.

I just don't see an eternal Jesus coming down to earth and becoming flesh (Jesus).
No, the Word (Logos) came down and became flesh (Jesus).

I see "Jesus" and "the Son of God" as being only names/titles.

But, after the Word (Logos) was given these 2 additional names,
it was kosher to say they were equivalent to Him, i.e. they meant the same as Him
... on earth, and then later in Heaven (including now).

After Jesus' birth, as far as names/titles go ... the Word (Logos) = Jesus = the Son of God

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[John Zain]

Some forum threads should be given the warning label: CCC
… which stands for:
Concentrate – closely on what you are reading
Comprehend – the meaning of what you are reading
Consider – openly what you have just read

 

[John Zain]

I think it’s time to put this topic to rest … as I see it as an unimportant technicality.
I hope this last attempt will further clarify to some people what I’ve been saying.

The Word (Logos) was God, and He was with Father God from the beginning … John 1:1.
The Word (Logos) came down to earth and became flesh (Jesus) … John 1:14.
IMO, the Word (Logos) was the Second Person of the Trinity.

Gabriel instructed: “that Holy One who is to be born”
will be CALLED "Jesus" and "the Son of God" … Luke 1:31,35.

So, from Jesus’ birth onwards … the Word (Logos) = Jesus = the Son of God

The point is …
Both of these NAMES: "Jesus" and "the Son of God" originated at the time of Jesus’ birth.
These NAMES were not used before Jesus’ birth, i.e. no Scriptures prove that they were.

But, it certainly IS Scriptural to say that Jesus, the Son of God, is in Heaven now.

 

[elijah23]

I believe Jesus is God in flesh. God wanted to come to earth in the form of a human being, so he did so as Jesus Christ.