Reference KJV NKJV NIV NASB RSV YLT ASV
Acts 7:45 Jesus Joshua Joshua Joshua Joshua Joshua Joshua
Hebrews 4:8 Jesus Joshua Joshua Joshua Joshua Joshua Joshua
Looking at the context of these two verses, it is easily seen that they are referring to when Joshua was leading the Israelites into the promised land. So why does the KJV have "Jesus" in these two verses while the other translations have "Joshua"?
The answer lies in the fact that the name "Joshua" in Hebrew ("Yahowshuwa" , Strong's #3091) is the same name as "Jesus" in Greek ("Iesous" , Strongs #2424).
The problem is that these two names are NOT equivalent in English. In Hebrew, there is one name "Yahowshuwa", and in Greek there is one name "Iesous". In English, we have two names, "Joshua" and "Jesus", so when the translators see "Iesous" in the Greek, they must choose which English name to use, since it can either mean "Jesus" or "Joshua". Context is the key, and the correct choice for Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 is "Joshua".
A look at the underlying Greek in these verses shows that "Iesous" is the name under discussion here. Everywhere else in the NT, it is translated correctly as "Jesus", because that's who it is referring to. However, in these two verses (Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8), the name is the same, but referring to Joshua of the Old Testament, not Jesus of the New.
Acts 7:45 said:
Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drave out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;
Hebrews 4:8 said:
For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.
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