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:lol2 In that case I think you have a lot of other issues going in in your head to worry about!!! :yes:tongue Everyone knows that when you turn over, it should only be for another 5, not 10!

If I may put in my 2 cents on that, I would say no. There are a lot of things we have or do today that aren't specifically mentioned but yet could still be sin. That's why (I think) I said earlier something about things that aren't condemned "either directly or in principle". As kind of an...

:approve

The sky is yellow.

And here we go again. :shame :shrug

Such a shame this happened to someone like him who had so much promise. I don't recall seeing any testimony from him indicating he was saved, but I pray that either he is or that he soon will be.

The person who posted that is no longer a member of this forum.

Fit's right into the concept of love God and love your neighbor, doesn't it?

And that's what conversations are made of! :yes

The reality is it would take an extremely gullible person to look at you drinking from that cup and not understand it's just a joke. I've never personally met anyone that ignorant and gullible. This is worrying over nothing.

Thank you. There has been quite enough of that lately. If this thread was a veiled attempt to bring that up again, I'm disappointed.

That's the attitude I totally disagree with. Especially since we have and do a lot of things that aren't mentioned in the Bible and even Church of Christ members have and do them. That's where I believe they (an the many others who do this as well) are incorrect, not only in that they claim...

The question in the thread title says "If it is unbiblical...it is a sin to practise (sic) it." To be UN-Biblical there has to be something in scripture that condemns it or condemns the principle behind it. If that's the case, then it would be sin. Just because some church leader, man's...

OK, I'm just not seeing that at all. The Greek word for wine in 1 Tim 5:23 is oinos, which always refers to alcoholic wine. I can't find any reference or indication that it refers to a mixture of wine and something else unless that is spelled out in the text, which it is not spelled out in 1...

How cool! God had your back the whole time!

Thanks, I was wondering where you were getting that. I don't particularly see that in 1 Tim 5:23 without assuming something that's not actually written there. I understand what John MacArthur is saying but even though he is a personal friend from a long time ago, I still have to understand...

And with all of that, none of you have been able to disprove that it was ME, yours truly, who named it Earth.

Yeah, I agree Is 1:22 does show it was done, otherwise it wouldn't be mentioned. But it doesn't paint it in a good light, rather as something bad! I was wondering if there was anything Biblical supporting an idea that it was supposed to be done that way according to God. And, I'm not real...

While I agree with them, neither Is 1:22 nor the articles you cited support the idea that in Biblical times wine was customarily diluted 3:1 with water. That's why I was asking Radagast where he got this info or what evidence he had of this as well as how 1Tim 5:23 or John 2:9 say this. It's...

I'm curious where did you find this information on them diluting their wine with water? I haven't read this whole thread (and can't because I'm at work right now), so maybe it was talked about earlier? I don't see anything in 1Tim 5:23 or John 2:9 that says anything about diluting the wine...