As a Premillennialist I’ve been plagued with questions and doubts, nagging questions that have gone unresolved and I hope to share them here in hopes of finding answers. I’m not attacking the Premil understand but seeking to resolve a few issues I’ve been having.
The Gap
Mat 13:39 The enemy that sowed them is the devil; the harvest is the end of the world; and the reapers are the angels.
Mat 13:40 As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world.
And:
Mat 13:49 So shall it be at the end of the world: the angels shall come forth, and sever the wicked from among the just,
Mat 13:50 And shall cast them into the furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth.
Clearly and literally, it seems, judgment of the wicked will occur when Christ returns. How is it possible to separate the first resurrection with this judgment by 1000 years?
Mat 25:31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
Mat 25:32 And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats:
Compare with:
Mat 13:40 As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world.
Mat 13:41 The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity;
Mat 13:42 And shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth.
Mat 13:43 Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father. Who hath ears to hear, let him hear.
How do we as Premillennialists deal with a literal reading of these Scriptures that Christ returns to earth, gathers all nations before Him and then separates the “sheep†from the “goats?â€Â
We find the resurrection [1 Cor. 15:35-37; 1 Thess. 4:13 – 5:11; 2 Thess. 1:5-10] along with the restoration of all things [2 Pet. 3:3-15] and judgment occurring at the same time. On what basis do we insert a gap between the second coming and the “sheep†and “goats†judgment? Where is the millennial gap?
This Age and the Age to Come
If we have a return or restoration of all things [2 Pet. 3:3-15], what does it mean? Does that mean we have a second fall of humanity during the millennial reign of Christ, after all, there is another rebellion [Rev. 20:7].
Joh 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.
Joh 5:25 Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live.
And:
Rev 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
Rev 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
When we read John 5 we get the impression of a spiritual resurrection for those who believe in Christ, how is this first spiritual resurrection not the resurrection spoken of in v. 5 of Revelation 20? If the millennial period is understood in what some call prophetic language, then it’s not a literal 1000 years but a figurative 1000 years. This would mean we have a figurative 1000 year period where Christ is reigning and ruling [Heb. 10:12-13] among believers before the final resurrection when Christ returns to separate the “sheep†and the “goats.†We then can conclude that believers have passed from death to life with a final resurrection on the last day. [John 6:39-40, 44]
The biggest problem I have, besides the insertion of a 1000 year gap between the Second Coming and the final judgment, is the idea of evil existing after the restoration of all things, in the new heaven and new earth, while Christ is on the throne. As a Premillennialist, I believe there will be another revolt against God, where Satan is allowed once again to deceive the nations. Who are those who will take part in this rebellion? If, when Christ returns, the wheat is separated from the weeds [Matt. 13:37-43] and judgment has taken place [Matt. 25:31-46], the elect have been gathered [Matt. 24:30-31], who are the people in unresurrected bodies who are left to take part in the rebellion? Remember, we claim to use a literal hermeneutic, where’s the gap between the first resurrection and judgment? If, when Christ comes, the end does also, how do we justify adding another 1000 years on earth? On the Day of the Lord the “flesh†will be destroyed [1 Cor. 5:5], the resurrection will take place at the last trumpet [1 Cor. 15:52] and judgment occurs. Where is the set up f an earthly Kingdom?
What is “the age to come†and how is it different from the age we live in?
Thx,
~JM~
The Gap
Mat 13:39 The enemy that sowed them is the devil; the harvest is the end of the world; and the reapers are the angels.
Mat 13:40 As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world.
And:
Mat 13:49 So shall it be at the end of the world: the angels shall come forth, and sever the wicked from among the just,
Mat 13:50 And shall cast them into the furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth.
Clearly and literally, it seems, judgment of the wicked will occur when Christ returns. How is it possible to separate the first resurrection with this judgment by 1000 years?
Mat 25:31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
Mat 25:32 And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats:
Compare with:
Mat 13:40 As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world.
Mat 13:41 The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity;
Mat 13:42 And shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth.
Mat 13:43 Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father. Who hath ears to hear, let him hear.
How do we as Premillennialists deal with a literal reading of these Scriptures that Christ returns to earth, gathers all nations before Him and then separates the “sheep†from the “goats?â€Â
We find the resurrection [1 Cor. 15:35-37; 1 Thess. 4:13 – 5:11; 2 Thess. 1:5-10] along with the restoration of all things [2 Pet. 3:3-15] and judgment occurring at the same time. On what basis do we insert a gap between the second coming and the “sheep†and “goats†judgment? Where is the millennial gap?
This Age and the Age to Come
If we have a return or restoration of all things [2 Pet. 3:3-15], what does it mean? Does that mean we have a second fall of humanity during the millennial reign of Christ, after all, there is another rebellion [Rev. 20:7].
Joh 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.
Joh 5:25 Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live.
And:
Rev 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
Rev 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
When we read John 5 we get the impression of a spiritual resurrection for those who believe in Christ, how is this first spiritual resurrection not the resurrection spoken of in v. 5 of Revelation 20? If the millennial period is understood in what some call prophetic language, then it’s not a literal 1000 years but a figurative 1000 years. This would mean we have a figurative 1000 year period where Christ is reigning and ruling [Heb. 10:12-13] among believers before the final resurrection when Christ returns to separate the “sheep†and the “goats.†We then can conclude that believers have passed from death to life with a final resurrection on the last day. [John 6:39-40, 44]
The biggest problem I have, besides the insertion of a 1000 year gap between the Second Coming and the final judgment, is the idea of evil existing after the restoration of all things, in the new heaven and new earth, while Christ is on the throne. As a Premillennialist, I believe there will be another revolt against God, where Satan is allowed once again to deceive the nations. Who are those who will take part in this rebellion? If, when Christ returns, the wheat is separated from the weeds [Matt. 13:37-43] and judgment has taken place [Matt. 25:31-46], the elect have been gathered [Matt. 24:30-31], who are the people in unresurrected bodies who are left to take part in the rebellion? Remember, we claim to use a literal hermeneutic, where’s the gap between the first resurrection and judgment? If, when Christ comes, the end does also, how do we justify adding another 1000 years on earth? On the Day of the Lord the “flesh†will be destroyed [1 Cor. 5:5], the resurrection will take place at the last trumpet [1 Cor. 15:52] and judgment occurs. Where is the set up f an earthly Kingdom?
What is “the age to come†and how is it different from the age we live in?
Thx,
~JM~
