Gazelle
Member
- Sep 20, 2011
- 894
- 20
Well, of course, ideally, one will stay married to the physical end, being totally happy in the Lord with being alone and longing. :heart
However, if we were to look at why God allowed divorce in the first place, we can see that it isn't His "perfect" will, but His "permissible" will.
I have to give Bro Robinson the benefit of the doubt, as he is old and has opinions from his studies and also his age. Paul said it was better to marry than to burn. If a spouse is no longer able to fulfill the marital needs--specifically in this case, will never be able to and won't even know that marriage is-- then doesn't that meet the requirements of a decree of divorce?
(Let's also keep in mind that Paul, himself, did "something" with his wife, for indeed one could not have been a Pharisee except he be married. So perhaps Paul was also speaking from understanding that need and his own experience? God surely allowed him to say so.)
But this link has some interesting comments: DIVORCE IN THE OLD TESTAMENT - International Standard Bible Encyclopedia
The Mosaic law apparently, on the side of the husband, made it as difficult as possible for him to secure a divorce. No man could unceremoniously and capriciously dismiss his wife without the semblance of a trial. In case one became dissatisfied with his wife, (1) he had to write her a BILL OF DIVORCEMENT (which see) drawn up by some constituted legal authority and in due legal form. In the very nature of the case, such a tribunal would use moral suasion to induce an adjustment; and, failing in this, would see to it that the law in the case, whatever it might be, would be upheld.
However, if we were to look at why God allowed divorce in the first place, we can see that it isn't His "perfect" will, but His "permissible" will.
I have to give Bro Robinson the benefit of the doubt, as he is old and has opinions from his studies and also his age. Paul said it was better to marry than to burn. If a spouse is no longer able to fulfill the marital needs--specifically in this case, will never be able to and won't even know that marriage is-- then doesn't that meet the requirements of a decree of divorce?
(Let's also keep in mind that Paul, himself, did "something" with his wife, for indeed one could not have been a Pharisee except he be married. So perhaps Paul was also speaking from understanding that need and his own experience? God surely allowed him to say so.)
But this link has some interesting comments: DIVORCE IN THE OLD TESTAMENT - International Standard Bible Encyclopedia
The Mosaic law apparently, on the side of the husband, made it as difficult as possible for him to secure a divorce. No man could unceremoniously and capriciously dismiss his wife without the semblance of a trial. In case one became dissatisfied with his wife, (1) he had to write her a BILL OF DIVORCEMENT (which see) drawn up by some constituted legal authority and in due legal form. In the very nature of the case, such a tribunal would use moral suasion to induce an adjustment; and, failing in this, would see to it that the law in the case, whatever it might be, would be upheld.