Doulos Iesou
Member
You know, I was reading through this thread again to see if I missed anything with the arguments presented against me and I noticed that you kept repeating this same exact question: "In which Greek grammar does it specify that any time aionios is paired with a noun, it signifies a process that has a completion?"Argument #1:
Matt 25:46~~"Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life."
In which Greek grammar does it specify that any time aionios is paired with a noun, it signifies a process that has a completion?
Can it be shown in scripture that the "experience" of eternal punishment is not in view, but the result of it is?
If It was," then they will go away to eternal "entertainment." Would it be the experience or the result of the entertainment in view?
I decided to google it as it appeared to be plagiarized, and it turns out I was right.
In this link, the very same question (word for word) is brought up.
http://www.tektonics.org/af/annix.php
It says:
"Once again, all that is done here is question-begging -- it is assumed without any justification that "punishment" is in exactly the same category as "sin" and "salvation". My question is: In which Greek grammar does it specify that any time aionios is paired with a noun, it signifies a process that has a completion? It is not found anywhere; it is a rule created by the annihilationism position."
It appears that gr8grace3 googled his argument, which happened to be a straw man and pretended to actually understand the Greek grammar.
Very disappointing...