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Books of the Bible

WIP

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I don't have much understanding about this topic so you won't find me getting much involved with the discussion but am hoping to learn a little by reading what others with more learning have to say. A little debate I think would be beneficial so this is why I started this thread in this forum.

My question is why do Protestants reject the following seven books of the original Bible or what is known today as the Catholic Bible?

Tobit
Judith
Wisdom of Solomon
Ecclesiasticus (Sirach)
Baruch
I Maccabees
II Maccabees

I also understand that parts of Daniel and Esther may have been rejected as well?
 
Those books were never in the "original Bible"They were never part of the Jewish scriptures, and although the Latin Vulgate (translated in 405AD) didn't have a special section for those books, as some Bibles have today, Jerome did include a prologue before each of them stating that they were not canonical (i.e. not Scripture). Only Roman Catholics, the Orthodox church and (I think) the Coptic church accept those books as Scripture. Jews and most Protestants have never accepted them as scriptural.

The TOG​
 
When did the Catholic church adopt them? So far I can not find specifics about when the Old Testament books of the Catholic Bible were canonized. I have found some information about the New Testament being canonized around the latter part of the 4th century but the Old Testament is still a little vague it seems.

I've also been learning some interesting bits about how Martin Luther rejected quite a bit of the New Testament scriptures as well.
 
"6. The Catholic Church has not always accepted the Apocrypha. The Apocrypha was not officially accepted by the Catholic Church at a universal council until 1546 at the Council of Trent. This is over a millennium and a half after the books were written, and was a counter reaction to the Protestant Reformation.4"

I found this quote below, from the same site, to be very interesting. http://carm.org/why-apocrypha-not-in-bible

"2. Jesus implicitly rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture by referring to the entire accepted Jewish Canon of Scripture, “From the blood of Abel [Gen. 4:8] to the blood of Zechariah [2 Chron. 24:20], who was killed between the altar and the house of God; yes, I tell you, it shall be charged against this generation (Lk. 11:51; cf. Mt. 23:35).”
Abel was the first martyr in the Old Testament from the book of Genesis, while Zechariah was the last martyr in the book of Chronicles. In the Hebrew Canon, the first book was Genesis and the last book was Chronicles. They contained all of the same books as the standard 39 books accepted by Protestants today, but they were just arranged differently. For example, all of the 12 minor prophets (Hosea through Malachi) were contained in one book. This is why there are only 24 books in the Hebrew Bible today. By Jesus referring to Abel and Zachariah, He was canvassing the entire Canon of the Hebrew Scriptures which included the same 39 books as Protestants accept today. Therefore, Jesus implicitly rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture."
 
Only Roman Catholics, the Orthodox church and (I think) the Coptic church accept those books as Scripture.

That's like saying "only English-speaking Americans." You just described about 2/3s of Christianity.
 
The Catholic Church has not always accepted the Apocrypha. The Apocrypha was not officially accepted by the Catholic Church at a universal council until 1546 at the Council of Trent.

In fact, there wasn't an approved list of books until the Council of Trent. Christian Bibles included the books, but until Trent, no one actually came up with an approved list. There was similar dissention among Protestants:

Luther made an attempt to remove the books of Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation from the canon (notably, he perceived them to go against certain Protestant doctrines such as sola gratia and sola fide), but this was not generally accepted among his followers.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Luther's_canon

He was correct in his assertion that these books were contrary to those doctrines (most notably James), but most Protestants have either found ways to interpret them in a compatible way, or have rejected one or both of Luther's doctrines.
 
That's like saying "only English-speaking Americans." You just described about 2/3s of Christianity.

I just described about 1/1000 of Christian denominations. I didn't say a small number of Christians, I said a small number of denominations.

The TOG​
 
I just described about 1/1000 of Christian denominations.

Who knows how many small sects now exists among Protestants? Who can even say when we should call them a "denomination" rather than a branch of an existing denomination? However, the number of Catholic denominations is fairly large. There are 23 denominations which acknowledge the pope as the head of the Church.

There are also "Old Catholics" who do not accept the Pope's authority, but who maintain apostolic succession and valid sacrements, much as the Anglicans do. There is some interest on both sides in re-joining these Catholics to the Church.

The situation in the Orthodox churches is even more diverse.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Orthodox_churches

Probably not as diverse as Protestantism, though. Still, those who do not accept all of the books of the Bible are a relatively small minority.
 
I'm not sure how numbers apply to the topic of this thread. I fail to see how a popularity contest would be the basis for the solution.
 
In fact, there wasn't an approved list of books until the Council of Trent. Christian Bibles included the books, but until Trent, no one actually came up with an approved list. There was similar dissention among Protestants:
No one came up with an approved list? Really? No Jerome, or Hippo? or many other Church Fathers?

Similar dissension among protestants? Well, I do not know everything but whom are you talking about? Mormons against the Magisterial Reformers?

Luther made an attempt to remove the books of Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation from the canon (notably, he perceived them to go against certain Protestant doctrines such as sola gratia and sola fide), but this was not generally accepted among his followers.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Luther's_canon
I read the article you posted. Where does it say that "Luther attempted to remove the books of Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation from the canon?" Where is there any documentation that says that Luther perceived them to go against any Protestant doctrines? Here is what the article said....
"In his book Basic Theology, Charles Caldwell Ryrie countered the claim that Luther rejected the Book of James as being canonical.[7] In his preface to the New Testament, Luther ascribed to several books of the New Testament different degrees of doctrinal value: "St. John's Gospel and his first Epistle, St. Paul's Epistles, especially those to the Romans, Galatians, Ephesians, and St. Peter's Epistle-these are the books which show to thee Christ, and teach everything that is necessary and blessed for thee to know, even if you were never to see or hear any other book of doctrine. Therefore, St. James' Epistle is a perfect straw-epistle compared with them, for it has in it nothing of an evangelic kind." Thus Luther was comparing (in his opinion) doctrinal value, not canonical validity.


However, Ryrie's theory is countered by other Biblical scholars, including William Barclay, who note that Luther stated plainly, if not bluntly: "I think highly of the epistle of James, and regard it as valuable although it was rejected in early days. It does not expound human doctrines, but lays much emphasis on God’s law. …I do not hold it to be of apostolic authorship."[8]"


By the way, William Barclay, as a non-trinitarian universalist is hardly representative of protestant theology any more than a secular humanist Roman Catholic scholar represents Roman Catholic Theology.

He was correct in his assertion that these books were contrary to those doctrines (most notably James), but most Protestants have either found ways to interpret them in a compatible way, or have rejected one or both of Luther's doctrines.
Where did Luther ever see any contradiction between the doctrinal teachings of James and Romans? I doubt you got that from Luther. What reputable evangelical protestants would today would reject what Luther taught on Justification by faith alone in both Romans and James? Can you document any of your claims? The one article you quote does not support what you are saying.
 
No one came up with an approved list? Really?

Right. The first approved list came during the Council of Trent. It confirmed the books that had been established by a local council in Florence in the 1400s, and a list that had been presented, but not made canonical by the Council of Carthage in 397,

No Jerome, or Hippo?

It confirmed Jerome's translation, known as the Vulgate, which is the same as the Bible made canonical at Trent. The same was confirmed at Hippo, pending ratification by the "Church across the sea" (i.e. the pope) although I don't think he ever formally approved it.

Similar dissension among protestants? Well, I do not know everything but whom are you talking about? Mormons against the Magisterial Reformers?

See below:

Barbarian observes:
Luther made an attempt to remove the books of Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation from the canon (notably, he perceived them to go against certain Protestant doctrines such as sola gratia and sola fide), but this was not generally accepted among his followers.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Luther's_canon

I read the article you posted. Where does it say that "Luther attempted to remove the books of Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation from the canon?" Where is there any documentation that says that Luther perceived them to go against any Protestant doctrines?

In the first section, under "Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation."

The most important example of dogmatic influence in Luther’s version is the famous interpolation of the word alone in Rom. 3:28 (allein durch den Glauben), by which he intended to emphasize his solifidian doctrine of justification, on the plea that the German idiom required the insertion for the sake of clearness.457 But he thereby brought Paul into direct verbal conflict with James, who says (James 2:24), "by works a man is justified, and not only by faith" ("nicht durch den Glauben allein"). It is well known that Luther deemed it impossible to harmonize the two apostles in this article, and characterized the Epistle of James as an "epistle of straw," because it had no evangelical character ("keine evangelische Art").
http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/hcc7.ii.iv.iv.html
It is true that Luther, after being rebuffed by his fellow Protestants, changed his stated position on James.

By the way, William Barclay, as a non-trinitarian universalist is hardly representative of protestant theology any more than a secular humanist Roman Catholic scholar represents Roman Catholic Theology.

Barbarian said:
He was correct in his assertion that these books were contrary to those doctrines (most notably James), but most Protestants have either found ways to interpret them in a compatible way, or have rejected one or both of Luther's doctrines.​

Where did Luther ever see any contradiction between the doctrinal teachings of James and Romans?

See above.
 
Right. The first approved list came during the Council of Trent. It confirmed the books that had been established by a local council in Florence in the 1400s, and a list that had been presented, but not made canonical by the Council of Carthage in 397,

It confirmed Jerome's translation, known as the Vulgate, which is the same as the Bible made canonical at Trent. The same was confirmed at Hippo, pending ratification by the "Church across the sea" (i.e. the pope) although I don't think he ever formally approved it.
The lists of the books from Hippo, the Fathers, and Trent are all contradictory. But the point I was making had to do with your statement that Trent was the first list. Of course you now are mentioning some of the other councils and Fathers.

See below:

Barbarian observes:
Luther made an attempt to remove the books of Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation from the canon (notably, he perceived them to go against certain Protestant doctrines such as sola gratia and sola fide), but this was not generally accepted among his followers.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Luther's_canon

In the first section, under "Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation."

The most important example of dogmatic influence in Luther’s version is the famous interpolation of the word alone in Rom. 3:28 (allein durch den Glauben), by which he intended to emphasize his solifidian doctrine of justification, on the plea that the German idiom required the insertion for the sake of clearness.457 But he thereby brought Paul into direct verbal conflict with James, who says (James 2:24), "by works a man is justified, and not only by faith" ("nicht durch den Glauben allein"). It is well known that Luther deemed it impossible to harmonize the two apostles in this article, and characterized the Epistle of James as an "epistle of straw," because it had no evangelical character ("keine evangelische Art").
http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/hcc7.ii.iv.iv.html
It is true that Luther, after being rebuffed by his fellow Protestants, changed his stated position on James.
The new article you are quoting does not even refer to the issue of canonization even once. Do you bother to read these articles before posting them? Maybe you do not understand what you read? Again, your making assertions and the support you quote does not refer at all to what you are saying.

So far, you have not produced any testimony that Luther even questioned the canonicity of James. In the wiki article, Ryrie says the exact opposite of your assertions.

By the way, William Barclay, as a non-trinitarian universalist is hardly representative of protestant theology any more than a secular humanist Roman Catholic scholar represents Roman Catholic Theology.

Barbarian said:
He was correct in his assertion that these books were contrary to those doctrines (most notably James), but most Protestants have either found ways to interpret them in a compatible way, or have rejected one or both of Luther's doctrines.​

See above.
Barclay could not exegete his way out of a children's bedtime story. The only people that feel there is any disharmony between James and Romans are those who do not understand the two books. Barbarian, I already know exactly where you going to go, and have written a lot on this forum already on the subject of James 2. So far, you posted two links that do not support anything you said. I think I will be moving on.
 
Barbarian said:
mondar said:
No one came up with an approved list? Really?
Right. The first approved list came during the Council of Trent. It confirmed the books that had been established by a local council in Florence in the 1400s, and a list that had been presented, but not made canonical by the Council of Carthage in 397,

mondar said:
No Jerome, or Hippo?
It confirmed Jerome's translation, known as the Vulgate, which is the same as the Bible made canonical at Trent. The same was confirmed at Hippo, pending ratification by the "Church across the sea" (i.e. the pope) although I don't think he ever formally approved it.

That's not true. The Council of Trent approved the deuterocanonical books as being scriptural, but Jerome rejected their canonicity.

Jerome in the Vulgate's prologues describes a canon which excludes the deuterocanonical books, possibly excepting Baruch. In his Prologues, Jerome mentions all of the deuterocanonical and apocryphal works by name as being apocryphal or "not in the canon" except for Prayer of Manasses and Baruch. He mentions Baruch by name in his Prologue to Jeremiah and notes that it is neither read nor held among the Hebrews, but does not explicitly call it apocryphal or "not in the canon".

Source

How can you say that the Council of Trent agreed with Jerome, when the council's decision on the deuterocanonical books was completely contrary to Jerome's views, with the possible exception of only two books?

The TOG​
 
Barbarian observes:
Right. The first approved list came during the Council of Trent. It confirmed the books that had been established by a local council in Florence in the 1400s, and a list that had been presented, but not made canonical by the Council of Carthage in 397,

It confirmed Jerome's translation, known as the Vulgate, which is the same as the Bible made canonical at Trent. The same was confirmed at Hippo, pending ratification by the "Church across the sea" (i.e. the pope) although I don't think he ever formally approved it.

The lists of the books from Hippo, the Fathers, and Trent are all contradictory.

Show us that. But as you see, the canon was established for the Church by the Council of Trent. It was an open question prior to that, with various opinions. Indeed, the vote at Trent was divided, with some dissenters, and some abstentions.

Luther made an attempt to remove the books of Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation from the canon (notably, he perceived them to go against certain Protestant doctrines such as sola gratia and sola fide), but this was not generally accepted among his followers.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Luther's_canon

In the first section, under "Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation."

The most important example of dogmatic influence in Luther’s version is the famous interpolation of the word alone in Rom. 3:28 (allein durch den Glauben), by which he intended to emphasize his solifidian doctrine of justification, on the plea that the German idiom required the insertion for the sake of clearness.457 But he thereby brought Paul into direct verbal conflict with James, who says (James 2:24), "by works a man is justified, and not only by faith" ("nicht durch den Glauben allein"). It is well known that Luther deemed it impossible to harmonize the two apostles in this article, and characterized the Epistle of James as an "epistle of straw," because it had no evangelical character ("keine evangelische Art").
http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/hcc7.ii.iv.iv.html
It is true that Luther, after being rebuffed by his fellow Protestants, changed his stated position on James.

The new article you are quoting does not even refer to the issue of canonization even once.

It merely demonstates the fact that Luther wanted to remove James from the Bible, because it contradicted his new doctrines. You denied this, so I showed you some evidence for it.

So far, you have not produced any testimony that Luther even questioned the canonicity of James.

See above. His own words say so. If he thought James was the word of God, why would He liken God's words to be "an epistle of straw", and of "no evangelical character?"


Barbarian said:
By the way, William Barclay, as a non-trinitarian universalist is hardly representative of protestant theology any more than a secular humanist Roman Catholic scholar represents Roman Catholic Theology.​

Um, no, Barbarian did not say that. Do you even bother to read them so you know who is saying what?

Barbarian observes:
He was correct in his assertion that these books were contrary to those doctrines (most notably James), but most Protestants have either found ways to interpret them in a compatible way, or have rejected one or both of Luther's doctrines.
Barclay could not exegete his way out of a children's bedtime story. The only people that feel there is any disharmony between James and Romans are those who do not understand the two books.

My point, exactly. Luther only knew the two were contradictory if one accepted his doctrine of sola fide. But in reality, there's no conflict at all.

Barbarian, I already know exactly where you going to go, and have written a lot on this forum already on the subject of James 2.

I'm just pointing out the historical record; if you don't add sola fide to Paul's statement, there's no conflict in the least.

I think I will be moving on.

Have a good day, and God bless.
 
I believe that the Bible is the inspired word of God. But how do I know which books and letters make up "The Bible"?
 
Why did the first Christians think that some personal letters written by a man named Paul were "the Word of God", authoritative for Christians of the day and the future - and why THAT determination was authoritative - as well... Who were "they" to tell Christians what was the "Word of God"? It should be obvious that individuals didn't come to this conclusion completely randomly and in a vaccuum.

If Tobit is not authoritative for Christians, then on what basis is anyone saying that Philemon IS? Anyone arguing as Luther (the Jews didn't accept it) is also condemning the entire NT to the apocryphal heap.

Of course, this conversation will take the usual direction. One side will claim "God tells me personlly this compilation of books is His Word" while the other will say "an authoritative body that I believe is led by the Spirit made the claim that this compilation of books is His Word".
 
Hello Francis,
I can honestly say I am glad to see you.

Why did the first Christians think that some personal letters written by a man named Paul were "the Word of God", authoritative for Christians of the day and the future - and why THAT determination was authoritative - as well... Who were "they" to tell Christians what was the "Word of God"? It should be obvious that individuals didn't come to this conclusion completely randomly and in a vaccuum.
I would not say that the Corinthians accepted Pauls Epistles "in a vacuum. The recognized the apostolic authority of Paul to speak authoritatively to their congregation. The same would have occurred in any Apostolic letter. The 12 apostles and Paul were the ones who saw Christ when he was in and out among them (Acts 1) and also witnessed Christ in his resurrection (Acts 1 & 1 cor 15). Thus when the Spirit came, they had special ministries of remembering the words of Christ and their meaning (John 14:26). The early Church identified this apostolic memory and gift and so then naturally recognized their writings as authoritative.

If Tobit is not authoritative for Christians, then on what basis is anyone saying that Philemon IS? Anyone arguing as Luther (the Jews didn't accept it) is also condemning the entire NT to the apocryphal heap.
I don't think comparing Tobit with Philemon is the best comparison. The OT saints did not recognize the apostolic authority of Tobit because there were no apostles. OT revelation was recognized by Jewish people before the NT Church by identifying those prophets that were "like Moses."

Of course, this conversation will take the usual direction. One side will claim "God tells me personlly this compilation of books is His Word" while the other will say "an authoritative body that I believe is led by the Spirit made the claim that this compilation of books is His Word".
Unfortunately, in charismatic theology, what you say is true. Charismatic theology is across the denominational spectrum. On the other hand, I do not see that it must be one or the other as you present above. I would fit in to neither of the categories above.

I want to add, that if sola scriptura is in the background of your thinking, neither of the positions above would consistently represent sola scriptura.
 
Hello Francis,
I can honestly say I am glad to see you.

Same here. My post above is more for some constructive thought. I will respond to you to clarify a few points.

I would not say that the Corinthians accepted Pauls Epistles "in a vacuum.

Which was my point. Individuals now or in the first century or in the 16th century (unless you were named "Martin Luther") didn't just "decide" that a letter was inspired by God. The community as a whole recognized it as such. And continues to recognize them. I am sure you are aware the mere "apostolic authorship" is not in of itself proof that God inspired a writing. Nowhere do we find such a statement in Jewish or Christian writings of the first century.

Nor is the claim to be written by an apostle evidence that is WAS written by an apostle. Most of the NT writings are not self-authenticating as to who actually wrote it. The Gospels, for example. The community of faith attributes them to the four writers named John, Mark, Matthew and Luke. But none of them state this in the actual writing (and Luke, of course, was not an apostle, nor was Mark)

The early Church identified this apostolic memory and gift and so then naturally recognized their writings as authoritative.

Yes, that's the trick, some group with authority recognized certain writings as such, creating a "canon" or list of writings that were put together to form a "bible". Knowing the model of authority of the Church, it is in the service of the community to make such determinatons. Just as in recognizing what is the Word of God, there is a recognition of who or what is authoritative for the community.

I don't think comparing Tobit with Philemon is the best comparison. The OT saints did not recognize the apostolic authority of Tobit because there were no apostles. OT revelation was recognized by Jewish people before the NT Church by identifying those prophets that were "like Moses."

I happen to be studying Philemon. I am wondering why you would consider it "the Word of God" just by reading it apart from its context within the canon. As to OT saints and recognition, the majority of Jews followed the Septuagint during the time of Christ, which included Tobit. They recognized it as God's Word - and the Sadducees didn't accept Isaiah as God's Word... With some of the reasoning used by others on this thread, we should eliminate anything but the Pentateuch proper...That is the problem with looking to the Jews to determine even OT canonicity.

Unfortunately, in charismatic theology, what you say is true. Charismatic theology is across the denominational spectrum. On the other hand, I do not see that it must be one or the other as you present above. I would fit in to neither of the categories above.

I want to add, that if sola scriptura is in the background of your thinking, neither of the positions above would consistently represent sola scriptura.

No sola scriptura dig there. Either "we" rely on our own musings/whisperings on what is God's Word or we accept the authority of another body. Be it Catholic, Lutheran or some book publisher that decided to leave out certain books on their own authority.

by the way, I see mention of Jerome in this thread. It is clearly done by people who have not studied the matter very much or are not using consistent arguments in their attempt to appeal to logic...

Do people not realize that Jerome accepted the Church's decision on the canon - and that his INDIVIDUAL disagreements were BEFORE the Church stated at Council (Carthage, et al) what was Scriptures? EVERY single doctrine/dogma has someone who disagreed with what would become the "official Church position". So what?

Jerome stated this to Augustine directly, that he accepted the Church's decision once officially declared. Using someone's initial misgivings to toss out part of Sacred Scriptues? Are we about to discount the NT because some Jews didn't like those writings? Or that the Sadducees didn't care for Isaiah?
 
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