I CAN NOT AGREE WITH WITH IS ON 1 CORITHIANS 13:10 ( then that which is in part shall be done away.) there is much speculation on this. if when that perfect is come.. Christ came before the apostles. so how could that be? honestly i think we can ponder on this and not know the true answer .. i did find this in searching >> c. That which is perfect: Paul says when that which is perfect has come, then the gifts will be "discontinued." But what is that which is perfect? Though some who believe the miraculous gifts ceased with the apostles say it refers to the completion of the New Testament, they are wrong. Virtually all commentators are agreed that which is perfect is when we are in the eternal presence of the Perfect One, when we are with the Lord forever either through the return of Christ or graduation to the eternal.
i. The Greek word for perfect is telos. Considering the way the New Testament uses telos in other passages, it certainly seems to be speaking about the coming of Jesus (1 Corinthians 1:8; 15:24; James 5:11; Revelation 20:5, 7; 21:6; 22:13).
d. Many who believe the miraculous gifts ended with the apostles (such as John MacArthur) claim since the verb will cease is not in the passive, but in the middle voice, it could be translated, tongues will stop by themselves. Their analysis sounds scholarly, but is disregarded by virtually all Greek scholars.
i. Even if this translation is correct, it does nothing to suggest when tongues will cease. John MacArthur claims, "tongues ceased in the apostolic age and that when they stopped, they stopped for good." But this passage doesn't tell us "tongues will stop by themselves," and it tells us tongues will cease only when that which is perfect has come.
ii. John Calvin was one who thought the will cease spoke of the eternal state. "But when will that perfection come? It begins, indeed, at death, because then we put off many weaknesses along with the body." (Calvin)
e. In his use of will fail and will cease and will vanish away, Paul, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, is not trying to say that prophecies, tongues, and knowledge have different fates. He is simply writing well, saying the same thing in three different ways. They will end, but love never fails.
i. "There is virtually no distinction between the two Greek verbs that describe the termination of both prophecies and tongues. True, the verb with prophecies is in the passive voice (believers are the implied agents), while the verb with tongues is interpreted as the active voice. The difference is only a stylistic change and nothing more." (Kistemaker)
f. We prophesy in part is air-tight evidence prophecy is not the exact same thing as preaching, or even "inspired" preaching. Who can listen to a preacher drone on and on, and say they only prophesy in part? It seems like a lot more than a part!
i. "Preaching is essentially a merging of the gifts of teaching and exhortation, prophecy has the primary elements of prediction and revelation." (Farnell, cited in Kistemaker).. { i am not saying i agree or i disagree with this it is interesting to study }