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Common Figure of Speech/Colloquial Language?

rstrats

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The Messiah said that He would be three days and three nights in the "heart of the earth".

There are some who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week.

And of those, there are some who think that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb or at the earliest to the moment when His spirit left His body).

However, a 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved.

To account for the lack of a 3rd night, there may be some of those mentioned above who try to explain the lack of a 3rd night by saying that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language.

I'm simply curious if anyone who may fall in the above group of believers might provide examples to support the belief of commonality; i.e., instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred. That is the only issue with which this queston is concerned.
 
When we look at the Jewish literature at that time, it becomes obvious that a part of the day was reckoned as all of that same day. Thus, it was thought that two parts of a day and a whole day were the same as three days, euphemistically referred to as three days and three nights.
Your comment as well deals with issues for a different topic. Perhaps you might start one.
 
HI rstrats

Or perhaps, since it seems that everyone is missing your point, you could make it more clear. You might try that.
I don't see how it could be any more clear.

What is it that is unclear about asking for examples to support the idea that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur?
 
I don't see how it could be any more clear.

What is it that is unclear about asking for examples to support the idea that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur?
Oh, I don't know, but it seems that your response posts continue to claim that people aren't addressing your issue. I would think for the careful thinker, that might tell them something. But, I could certainly be wrong. Carry on.
 
Oh, I don't know, but it seems that your response posts continue to claim that people aren't addressing your issue. I would think for the careful thinker, that might tell them something.
The only thing I can think of is that they must have been off on the day/s that reading comprehension was being covered.
 
The Messiah said that He would be three days and three nights in the "heart of the earth".
Mat 12:40 For just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth. (ESV)

There are some who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week.
Some? All, I would think.

Mar 15:42 And when evening had come, since it was the day of Preparation, that is, the day before the Sabbath,
Mar 15:43 Joseph of Arimathea, a respected member of the council, who was also himself looking for the kingdom of God, took courage and went to Pilate and asked for the body of Jesus. (ESV)

However, a 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved.

To account for the lack of a 3rd night, there may be some of those mentioned above who try to explain the lack of a 3rd night by saying that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language.
Yes, that is most likely the case. A Hebraism in which one part of a day is counted as the whole day. From Adam Clarke's Commentary on the Bible, regarding Matt. 12:40:

"And so also the Jerusalem Talmud: ‘R. Akiba fixed a Day for an onah, and a Night for an onah.’ But the tradition is, that R. Eliazar ben Azariah said, A day and a night make an onah: and a Part of an onah is as the Whole. And a little after, R. Ismael computed a part of the onah for the whole.” Thus, then, three days and three nights, according to this Jewish method of reckoning, included any part of the first day; the whole of the following night; the next day and its night; and any part of the succeeding or third day."

Other commentaries say the same.

I'm simply curious if anyone who may fall in the above group of believers might provide examples to support the belief of commonality; i.e., instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred. That is the only issue with which this queston is concerned.
2Ch 10:5 And he said unto them, Come again unto me after three days. And the people departed.
...
2Ch 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day. (KJV)

Est 4:16 “Go, gather all the Jews to be found in Susa, and hold a fast on my behalf, and do not eat or drink for three days, night or day. I and my young women will also fast as you do. Then I will go to the king, though it is against the law, and if I perish, I perish.”
Est 4:17 Mordecai then went away and did everything as Esther had ordered him.

Est 5:1 On the third day Esther put on her royal robes and stood in the inner court of the king's palace, in front of the king's quarters, while the king was sitting on his royal throne inside the throne room opposite the entrance to the palace. (ESV)

Similarly:

Mat 16:21 From that time Jesus began to show his disciples that he must go to Jerusalem and suffer many things from the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and on the third day be raised. (ESV)

Mat 17:23 and they will kill him, and he will be raised on the third day.” And they were greatly distressed. (ESV)

Mat 20:19 and deliver him over to the Gentiles to be mocked and flogged and crucified, and he will be raised on the third day.” (ESV)

Mat 26:61 and said, “This man said, ‘I am able to destroy the temple of God, and to rebuild it in three days.’” (ESV)

Mat 27:63 and said, “Sir, we remember how that impostor said, while he was still alive, ‘After three days I will rise.’ Mat 27:64 Therefore order the tomb to be made secure until the third day, lest his disciples go and steal him away and tell the people, ‘He has risen from the dead,’ and the last fraud will be worse than the first.” (ESV)

Mar 8:31 And he began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer many things and be rejected by the elders and the chief priests and the scribes and be killed, and after three days rise again. (ESV)

Luk 24:21 But we had hoped that he was the one to redeem Israel. Yes, and besides all this, it is now the third day since these things happened. (ESV)

Act 10:40 but God raised him on the third day and made him to appear, (ESV)

1Co 15:4 that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day in accordance with the Scriptures, (ESV)

All the above supports the understanding that in that culture, a part of a day was counted as a whole day. The change of language between "on the third day" and "after three days," especially by the same writer, makes little sense otherwise. The disciples and writers of Scripture clearly had no issue with it, so we shouldn't either.
 
Free,
re: "rstrats said: There are some who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week."
Some? All, I would think.
---------------------------------------------
You'd be surprised on how many think it was on the 5th day or 4th day of the week.

And, with the possible exception of the Esther reference, all of your other comments deal with issues for a different topic. Perhaps you might start one
 
Free,
re: "rstrats said: There are some who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week."
Some? All, I would think.
---------------------------------------------
You'd be surprised on how many think it was on the 5th day or 4th day of the week.
Which is odd given that the sixth day is mentioned.

And, with the possible exception of the Esther reference, all of your other comments deal with issues for a different topic. Perhaps you might start one
They’re all relevant to this topic and directly answer your question. They show the use of language which where a part of a day is considered as a whole. “After three days” implies the fourth day, yet it is equated with “on the third day,” which can only be a part of a day. That suggests that parts of a day are counted as a full day. And so parts of two days and one full day is the same as three full days, day and night.

As I stated, the writers of Scripture had no issue with that and so neither should we.
 
They’re all relevant to this topic and directly answer your question.
And for some reason you don't seem to understand what the question is.

The only question of this topic is what examples (plural) show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could be?

So, let's see:

They show the use of language which where a part of a day is considered as a whole.
How does that directly answer the question?
“After three days” implies the fourth day, yet it is equated with “on the third day,” which can only be a part of a day.
How does that directly answer the question?
That suggests that parts of a day are counted as a full day. And so parts of two days and one full day is the same as three full days, day and night.
How does that directly answer the question?

 
That is the only issue with which this queston is concerned.
The world, babylon, has examples galore (in abundance). Does this help get to the truth?
Nope.
Jesus speaks the truth, and reveals the truth to those seeking the truth who keep seeking the truth (contrary to and opposed to babylon, the world, society).

Who can pay the cost to believe and follow Jesus ?
 
And for some reason you don't seem to understand what the question is.

The only question of this topic is what examples (plural) show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could be?
"To account for the lack of a 3rd night, there may be some of those mentioned above who try to explain the lack of a 3rd night by saying that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language."

"instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred."

I understand the question and I answered it.

How does that directly answer the question?
That doesn't directly, but the examples I based that on do. That was rather the point--providing examples.

How does that directly answer the question?
How does it not? If "after three days" implies after three days and three nights, bringing us to a fourth day, but the result is "on the third day," meaning the night of the third day had not yet happened, then the only conclusion is that the writers of the NT considered just the morning as a full day. It was still considered a fulfillment of "after three days" or as a full three days.

And since the writers of the NT considered Jesus's two partial days and one full day as a fulfillment of "three days and three nights," then that also supports the idea that one part of a day could be used as a full day. Again, since they had no problem with it, and they were the ones that lived in that culture, not you, then we should have no problem understanding that what was meant by "three days and three nights" was fulfilled.

That was shown with both OT and NT examples, including Jesus's death and resurrection, which is what your OP is about.

How does that directly answer the question?
That doesn't directly, but the examples I based that on do. That was rather the point--providing examples.

How common was it to use part of a day to refer to a whole day? I don't know and the Bible doesn't care. It's focus isn't to provide full explanations of idioms, colloquial language, and other ancient figures of speech. I gave you examples of exactly what you asked for (and provided commentaries that stated it was the case). But, if you still want to deny that, then there are no biblical examples, which is what you would have known to begin with, making this a trolling thread.
 
I wonder if you might provide a couple of them.
I think some were already used in this thread (but have not read them),
and I saw them in previous threads, forums, "studies" on the internet,
but since I don't put any stock in them and since it is not as far as I can tell something good from above (from God), I do not continue thinking about them.
My point was that just as there are "many false prophets", anyone who wants to find so-called "evidence" of anything false, anything at all, it is often if not always readily available.
 
I understand the question and I answered it.
Please show where you provided the instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred."
 
Please show where you provided the instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred."
HERE, in post #27.
 
HERE, in post #27.
And as wrote in post #28, with the possible exception of the Esther reference, all of your other comments deal with issues for a different topic. And even if the Esther account is actually an example (and that is dependent on "three days, night or day" meaning the same thing as "three days and three nights", one example doesn't show commonality.
 
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And as wrote in post #28, with the possible exception of the Esther reference, all of your other comments deal with issues for a different topic.
And, as I have been replying, they all deal directly with the OP and your request for examples.

More and more this is appearing to be just a trolling thread and not a search for understanding the Bible. It seems you just want to justify your unbelief by trying to find some contradiction or other issue with the Bible, particularly Jesus's death and resurrection. Is that a fairly accurate assessment?
 
And, as I have been replying, they all deal directly with the OP and your request for examples.
In the immortal words of Struther Martin, "What we have here is a failure to communicate."
More and more this is appearing to be just a trolling thread and not a search for understanding the Bible. It seems you just want to justify your unbelief by trying to find some contradiction or other issue with the Bible, particularly Jesus's death and resurrection. Is that a fairly accurate assessment?
Absolutely not.
 
In the immortal words of Struther Martin, "What we have here is a failure to communicate."
"Please show where you provided the instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred."

That is precisely what I provided. It takes of bit of reasoning as it is implied, but it is clearly implied and doesn't need to be stated explicitly.

Absolutely not.
But, you already knew that there were no examples worded the way you want them worded. It's as though you expect someone to have written, "Just as we believe one part of a day is a whole day," or "Just as Jesus was in the grave for parts of two days and one full day, and we count that as three full days and nights." But, you'll never find that because they all belonged to the same culture and were writing to others of that culture. They obviously didn't need to make explicit mention of any of that. But, from the examples I gave, we can clearly see that they did believe a part of a day was considered as a full day.
 
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