TheCurseoftheRodain
Member
Plus, sourberry, you never responded: are you going to get saved tonight or what? What is holding you back from Jesus today?
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Desire to be a vessel of honor unto the Lord Jesus Christ?
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
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Taking the time to pray? Christ is the answer in times of need
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
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Depending upon the Holy Spirit for all you do?
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
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How are famous preachers sometimes effected by sin?
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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Death
- Thread starter Kathi
- Start date
Gary
Member
Last edited:
Gary
Member
Nice study....I agree
TheCurseoftheRodain
Member
Because at his opportunity to stand for Jesus, "Christian:" he has said, "no". It's right there on under his name.
Gary
Member
There are many who are reluctant to wear the label of "Christian" because of the blasphemies coming out of the church today. I used to be one of them. I'm not saying this is the case here, but you can't judge an individuals relationship with God based solely on a word below their name.
None of us has the ability to gaze into the heart.
.
TheCurseoftheRodain
Member
Hey Gary, I have never heard of anyone doing that, you are the first instance. I suppose if someone did not know that Jesus said that if you are ashamed of Me down here among men, then I will be ashamed of you in the presence of My Father and the angels, then perhaps they might do that, though to be called a CHRISTian is to be one who is like the Anointed One Himself. I don't know why someone would be reluctant of that - but I suppose sourberry will tell us sometime soon.
Gary
Member
Would you mind addressing this?
Please explain how the scripture of 1 John 3:2 is not consistent with the scriptures.
.
farouk
Member
If the rapture happens in our lifetime, then we won't pass through the veil of death... (1 Thess. 4).
TheCurseoftheRodain
Member
Hi Gary,
Your question of how the Scripture is not consistent with the Scripture is not a valid question, for I did not say that. For accuracy, I will quote my previous passage of explanation: (I never said, and would never say, that Scripture was inconsistent with Scripture, I said that what YOU said was inconsistent with the Scriptures)
"Hi Gary, what you have said above is wrong - actually what you are saying here is not consistent with the Scriptures...the way you are putting this is like saying, "Well, maybe we'll be broccoli stalks...or Frisbees...or gas clouds....or rocks...or giant eyeballs with soup bowls and kneecaps glued on...
Looking at the first 2 verses of 1 John 2, it is written, "Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.
2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is."
Looking at verse 1 we see that God has called us to be His sons. Now what son is a piece of broccoli when his father is a man? The son always looks like the Father, and the son is after the same kind as the father (ie Men make more men, not anything else (not donkeys, trees, candy)).
Knowing this, Jesus is THE Son of God. Want to see what the Father LOOKS like? Jesus answered His disciples in John 14 saying if you have seen ME, you have SEEN the Father. So we know that God looks just like one of us, like a man, and that therefore WE look like HIM. This is also consistent with Genesis where it is written that Adam was the exact likeness of God, that God looked just like him and Adam looked just like God.
So for us to be called "sons of God" because THE Son of God has MADE us "sons of God" means WE look just like the Father does.
If God didn't want us having this understand He would have worded things differently, but these are the Holy Spirit's own words, therefore they are true.
Combine this with what I already pointed out above: As well, we are each a tripartite being, just as God: a spirit (the hidden inner man of the heart as the Hebrew says) with a soul (mind, will and emotions) that lives in a body. When you leave your body you lose neither your spirit nor your soul. So WHAT is being resurrected? For in 1 Cor 15, God says we shall be resurrected. But every man in his order, 1st Jesus (being the firstfruits) and then the rest of those who believe.
When Jesus resurrected, what was He given? What happened to Him to BE qualified to be called, "resurrected"? Because He did not lose His Spirit or His soul, but only His body had been lost. So Jesus received a NEW GLORIFIED BODY. So God calls being resurrected receiving a new body.
So when you look at verse 2 of 1 John 3, clearly it cannot mean that we don't know whether or not we get a body, because Scripture dictates that we DO get a new, glorified body (* EVEN the rest of verse 2 says "we shall be like Him (that means just like Him, which means if He has a resurrected, glorified body, then so will we!)).
Notice also that the Scripture you are pointing out says "BE", not "HAS", in other words, there is no reference to what we shall have, for you HAVE a resurrected, glorified body, you do not BE a resurrected, glorified body. You HAVE a body, you do not BE a body (in reference to what you possess). This is really quite clear.
Lastly, if you look at verse 2 in the Amplified, you get a much clearer picture of what John has actually said here, "2 Beloved, we are [even here and] now God’s children; it is not yet disclosed (made clear) what we shall be [hereafter], but we know that when He comes and is manifested, we shall [[b]as God’s children] resemble and be like Him, for we shall see Him [c]just as He [really] is.
Notice that John starts off by saying that we ARE now God's children, and then the sentence continues that it is not yet disclosed what we SHALL be hereafter. It is kind of like saying my son is my son, and later (still and always being my son) he shall become a preacher of Jesus, or an evangelist of Jesus, or a prophet of Jesus, etc.
This is all part of knowing what God's Word says and means, and I believe I have clearly and faithfully demonstrated just that on these 2 verses and proven by the Scriptures that ALL Believers SHALL have the same resurrected, glorified body that Jesus has.
And don't forget Acts 3:21 too, that Jesus is coming back to RESTORE all things. To what? To the original condition. That means having a glorified body, the same as the first Adam would have had, which is what Jesus received at His resurrection and is what WE all will receive at OUR resurrection.
Your question of how the Scripture is not consistent with the Scripture is not a valid question, for I did not say that. For accuracy, I will quote my previous passage of explanation: (I never said, and would never say, that Scripture was inconsistent with Scripture, I said that what YOU said was inconsistent with the Scriptures)
"Hi Gary, what you have said above is wrong - actually what you are saying here is not consistent with the Scriptures...the way you are putting this is like saying, "Well, maybe we'll be broccoli stalks...or Frisbees...or gas clouds....or rocks...or giant eyeballs with soup bowls and kneecaps glued on...
Looking at the first 2 verses of 1 John 2, it is written, "Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.
2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is."
Looking at verse 1 we see that God has called us to be His sons. Now what son is a piece of broccoli when his father is a man? The son always looks like the Father, and the son is after the same kind as the father (ie Men make more men, not anything else (not donkeys, trees, candy)).
Knowing this, Jesus is THE Son of God. Want to see what the Father LOOKS like? Jesus answered His disciples in John 14 saying if you have seen ME, you have SEEN the Father. So we know that God looks just like one of us, like a man, and that therefore WE look like HIM. This is also consistent with Genesis where it is written that Adam was the exact likeness of God, that God looked just like him and Adam looked just like God.
So for us to be called "sons of God" because THE Son of God has MADE us "sons of God" means WE look just like the Father does.
If God didn't want us having this understand He would have worded things differently, but these are the Holy Spirit's own words, therefore they are true.
Combine this with what I already pointed out above: As well, we are each a tripartite being, just as God: a spirit (the hidden inner man of the heart as the Hebrew says) with a soul (mind, will and emotions) that lives in a body. When you leave your body you lose neither your spirit nor your soul. So WHAT is being resurrected? For in 1 Cor 15, God says we shall be resurrected. But every man in his order, 1st Jesus (being the firstfruits) and then the rest of those who believe.
When Jesus resurrected, what was He given? What happened to Him to BE qualified to be called, "resurrected"? Because He did not lose His Spirit or His soul, but only His body had been lost. So Jesus received a NEW GLORIFIED BODY. So God calls being resurrected receiving a new body.
So when you look at verse 2 of 1 John 3, clearly it cannot mean that we don't know whether or not we get a body, because Scripture dictates that we DO get a new, glorified body (* EVEN the rest of verse 2 says "we shall be like Him (that means just like Him, which means if He has a resurrected, glorified body, then so will we!)).
Notice also that the Scripture you are pointing out says "BE", not "HAS", in other words, there is no reference to what we shall have, for you HAVE a resurrected, glorified body, you do not BE a resurrected, glorified body. You HAVE a body, you do not BE a body (in reference to what you possess). This is really quite clear.
Lastly, if you look at verse 2 in the Amplified, you get a much clearer picture of what John has actually said here, "2 Beloved, we are [even here and] now God’s children; it is not yet disclosed (made clear) what we shall be [hereafter], but we know that when He comes and is manifested, we shall [[b]as God’s children] resemble and be like Him, for we shall see Him [c]just as He [really] is.
Notice that John starts off by saying that we ARE now God's children, and then the sentence continues that it is not yet disclosed what we SHALL be hereafter. It is kind of like saying my son is my son, and later (still and always being my son) he shall become a preacher of Jesus, or an evangelist of Jesus, or a prophet of Jesus, etc.
This is all part of knowing what God's Word says and means, and I believe I have clearly and faithfully demonstrated just that on these 2 verses and proven by the Scriptures that ALL Believers SHALL have the same resurrected, glorified body that Jesus has.
And don't forget Acts 3:21 too, that Jesus is coming back to RESTORE all things. To what? To the original condition. That means having a glorified body, the same as the first Adam would have had, which is what Jesus received at His resurrection and is what WE all will receive at OUR resurrection.
Gary
Member
If you did not say that, why is there a quote of you saying that exact thing?
And what did I personally say that was inconsistent?
.
TheCurseoftheRodain
Member
Gary if anyone is digging a hole, it is not me. This is rather pointless, but since you insist on not seeing this, I will point it out once and then speak of it no more.
#1 - you accuse me of accusing you of saying that the Scriptures are not consistent with the Scriptures.
#2 - I point out to you that I did not say that, but that what YOU said was inconsistent with the Scriptures ("Hi Gary, what you (not the Scriptures) have said above is wrong - actually what you (not the Scriptures) are saying here is not consistent with the Scriptures)
#3 - NEXT Right here above I quote you, "Please explain how the scripture of 1 John 3:2 is not consistent with the scriptures." (Even though it was already proven above that I said that what YOU said was inconsistent with the Scriptures, not that the Scriptures were inconsistent with the Scriptures).
So that we are clear: you have asked me to explain how the Scripture of 1 John 3:2 is not consistent with the Scriptures.
#4 - THEN I point out again that I did not say that the Scripture was inconsistent with the Scripture, "Hi Gary, what you have said above is wrong - actually what you are saying here is not consistent with the Scriptures"
Notice that again my sentence reads "you", not "Scriptures".
I really do not see how this has been misunderstood, it is all right there in the previous posts, please re-read them and you will see. Thanks!
Gary
Member
Semantics.
"1 John" was written between 90 and 95 AD. Even though much of what I post in these forums is closely related to scripture, I cannot take credit for the works of John.
As you say.
.
TheCurseoftheRodain
Member
Then peace reigns Be blessed tonight.
Be blessed tonight.
Lewis
Member
Scientific Evidence Supporting Near-Death Experiences and the Afterlife
http://www.near-death.com/evidence.html
http://www.near-death.com/evidence.html
Gary
Member
With the exception of a few atheists that roam through here from time to time, I don't believe anyone here questions the afterlife.
What I question are the ones who claim to have gone to heaven or hell and back. I simply don't believe it.
.
Me tooI looked at the last few posts and maybe my mind is a bit muddled but I found the thread of thought a bit hard to follow...