cyberjosh
Member
Hello everyone, [pardon the length]
I am going to undertake (again) an attempt to revisit a series of questions I had on these forums here several years ago when I was seeking earnestly to understand better the matter of salvation, the security of our salvation in the Spirit, and the possibility of apostasy during which I visited a very important topic on the operations of the Holy Spirit in the OT and NT and how the operations changed, or at least appeared to change, from the old to the new covenant. That discussion was in one of my threads titled "Clear examples of false belief in John & Epistles" where at one point I posted the following points for explanation (from this post):
Some of my views have since changed (particularly on point #4), also thanks in part to Joe's able and detailed response to that post, and I now have a better understanding and foundation for understanding the issue of our salvation's security and the possibility of turning away (as we are warned about many times in scripture). However, still, ever since the issue of the Holy Spirit's operation in the Old Testament had been brought up it has weighed on me as of utmost importance to understand if the New Testament's revelation of salvation through Christ is to be fully understood.
Joe's response challenged me to evaluate if salvation and the presence of the Spirit in the NT was really all that different from that in the OT, however I still have had a very difficult time trying to tell myself that there is no difference other than in the manner of the dispensation of that salvation and the Spirit's indwelling.
As in my quote I tried to demonstrate many "firsts" under the new covenant (which I think distinguish it from the Holy Spirit's operation in the OT), such as the "firstfruits" of salvation after Christ's resurrection and the issue of being "a new creation", which seem to be historical firsts in the NT. Also the gifts of the Spirit manifested after Pentecost seemed to be a new operation of the Spirit, although prophecy and miracles had long been demonstrated before in the OT and the Gospels.
So the real question is: how was the Spirit's operation in the NT different from the OT? My point #1 in the quote betrayed my understanding, which still is unresolved in my mind, that in the OT only the heart was changed for the individual when the Spirit rested on them (but there was no Baptism in the Spirit, saving regeneration, and rather was distinguished by coming-and-going as the Holy Spirit came upon and left people as he pleased [as with Samson and Saul]). Thus no real permanence of presence or internal change (at least not that could be called an entire "new creation"!), even for those like David, seems to have been made in the saints of the OT. This is similar to my view in the quoted point #3, for which my question of comparison had not changed much over the years. But if rather the OT did in fact have all those things (but imputed in advance due to Christ's eternal sacrifice) then what in fact was different under the new covenant? And how was regeneration, a new creation, and crucifixion of the flesh then accomplished in the OT if that is the case?
When I was a new Christian, and I genuinely suspect that this view holds for the majority of new Christians, I had a sense that something new and complete had been at work. When we first learn that we can leave our old sin life and finally be changed from the inside out, killing our "old man" and putting on our "new man", we walk into a whole new life and see that instant of our salvation through faith as a major moment that we internally change. We then see our lives through the fact of our being a "new creation". The OT saints also had such experiences of faith, but never with all the promises and immediacy of the Spirit that the new covenant brings. But then we run into the tougher scriptural issues that inform us that only if we endure to the end shall we be saved. So which is it? Did I become a new creation and become saved at the moment I believed, and (as a package deal) will I consequently also be saved in the end, or can I fall away? What then becomes of that moment we believed? Was it no different than the OT dispensation? Why then does it seem such a formative and rebirthing experience? When did an OT saint ever have such a similar experience? What if any of those at Pentecost had later apostatized? Those at Pentecost experienced, IMO something never done in the OT, and if they then fell away how can that unique experience (however) have accounted for anything different than the OT experience when the Spirit can depart from you? It seems paradoxical, although paradoxes by definition are assumed to be true.
I personally have an understanding that one can indeed fall away (sorry to bring that much debated conclusion to the table in this larger discussion) if they repeatedly reject both God's mercy and judgment. I also believe that the salvation under the new covenant and the indwelling of the Holy Spirit is something entirely unique (though always promised, prophesied about, and foreshadowed) and that we cannot pawn it off as just being, "the same as how the Spirit operated in the OT". But then my dilemma is, in light of apostasy, how can we really distinguish the unique operations of the Holy Spirit under the new covenant from His operations in the Old Covenant? I suspect that it actually has something to do with, under this new dispensation, the fact of the Spirit's indwelling (not to visit - or occasionally rest upon) in us along with the Father and Son (as promised), which provides us with unparalleled access to the Father since the veil has been torn and the entrance to the holy of hollies has been opened, and now secured us under a new covenant. And now with a new covenant we thus experience the new promises under it, but also with greater responsibility, which if abused can end us up in the same situation as anyone who apostatized in the OT. That is an inkling I have of the true answer that I feel explains this. But I'm open to other thoughts, and I encourage and invite them.
[continued briefly below]
I am going to undertake (again) an attempt to revisit a series of questions I had on these forums here several years ago when I was seeking earnestly to understand better the matter of salvation, the security of our salvation in the Spirit, and the possibility of apostasy during which I visited a very important topic on the operations of the Holy Spirit in the OT and NT and how the operations changed, or at least appeared to change, from the old to the new covenant. That discussion was in one of my threads titled "Clear examples of false belief in John & Epistles" where at one point I posted the following points for explanation (from this post):
cyberjosh said:Let me However point out a few things which I would greatly appreciate you explaining if possible about the difference in what you would call a "new creation" in the OT and how it is presented in the NT. I suppose you could say that God started making a "new creation" in the people of the OT if you can compare it to God's OT promises of giving a "new heart". Let me though try to work out some differences & similarities I see in parallel and see what you think about it.
OT || NT
1. Spirit affects the creation of a new heart || Spirit affects [a totally] new creation
2. If the Spirit left, the state of the new heart degenerated || No known explicit parallel in NT
3. 'New heart' was dependant on the HS it yet had no promise for long-term effects (permanance) or definate standing before God || Our new creation has a long-standing positional sanctification before God
4. OT saw no promise of a "seal" || NT has promise of the Spirit as a seal (thus we get to remain in our "new creation" since the HS does not depart - unlike OT examples)
Note also that Jesus is called the "firstborn among many" and the following "firstfruits" did not happen until Jesus' sacrifice, resurrection, and ascension. You cannot be "firstfruits" if those before in the OT experienced the same "new creation". Also at Hebrews 9:15 we read: "So that is why he is a mediator of a new covenant, in order that, because a death has occurred for their release by ransom from the transgressions under the former covenant, the ones who have been called might receive the promise of the everlasting inheritance." There was no such promise under the old covenant given immediately to individuals (even though OT prophecies predicted its future dispensation).
Here is the only problem I have in my "sanctified imagination" though (something I have a hard time visualizing): a "heart" is something we've always had, whether good or bad. However the NT is explicit that we have a "new creation" (not out of our old nature - for the remnanats of the old nature still exist) but it seems to have been created ex nihilo. So I don't see the "new creation" as a "state" of our spirit that can change from good to bad and back again like our "heart" can. What am I missing here, if anything?
Some of my views have since changed (particularly on point #4), also thanks in part to Joe's able and detailed response to that post, and I now have a better understanding and foundation for understanding the issue of our salvation's security and the possibility of turning away (as we are warned about many times in scripture). However, still, ever since the issue of the Holy Spirit's operation in the Old Testament had been brought up it has weighed on me as of utmost importance to understand if the New Testament's revelation of salvation through Christ is to be fully understood.
Joe's response challenged me to evaluate if salvation and the presence of the Spirit in the NT was really all that different from that in the OT, however I still have had a very difficult time trying to tell myself that there is no difference other than in the manner of the dispensation of that salvation and the Spirit's indwelling.
As in my quote I tried to demonstrate many "firsts" under the new covenant (which I think distinguish it from the Holy Spirit's operation in the OT), such as the "firstfruits" of salvation after Christ's resurrection and the issue of being "a new creation", which seem to be historical firsts in the NT. Also the gifts of the Spirit manifested after Pentecost seemed to be a new operation of the Spirit, although prophecy and miracles had long been demonstrated before in the OT and the Gospels.
So the real question is: how was the Spirit's operation in the NT different from the OT? My point #1 in the quote betrayed my understanding, which still is unresolved in my mind, that in the OT only the heart was changed for the individual when the Spirit rested on them (but there was no Baptism in the Spirit, saving regeneration, and rather was distinguished by coming-and-going as the Holy Spirit came upon and left people as he pleased [as with Samson and Saul]). Thus no real permanence of presence or internal change (at least not that could be called an entire "new creation"!), even for those like David, seems to have been made in the saints of the OT. This is similar to my view in the quoted point #3, for which my question of comparison had not changed much over the years. But if rather the OT did in fact have all those things (but imputed in advance due to Christ's eternal sacrifice) then what in fact was different under the new covenant? And how was regeneration, a new creation, and crucifixion of the flesh then accomplished in the OT if that is the case?
When I was a new Christian, and I genuinely suspect that this view holds for the majority of new Christians, I had a sense that something new and complete had been at work. When we first learn that we can leave our old sin life and finally be changed from the inside out, killing our "old man" and putting on our "new man", we walk into a whole new life and see that instant of our salvation through faith as a major moment that we internally change. We then see our lives through the fact of our being a "new creation". The OT saints also had such experiences of faith, but never with all the promises and immediacy of the Spirit that the new covenant brings. But then we run into the tougher scriptural issues that inform us that only if we endure to the end shall we be saved. So which is it? Did I become a new creation and become saved at the moment I believed, and (as a package deal) will I consequently also be saved in the end, or can I fall away? What then becomes of that moment we believed? Was it no different than the OT dispensation? Why then does it seem such a formative and rebirthing experience? When did an OT saint ever have such a similar experience? What if any of those at Pentecost had later apostatized? Those at Pentecost experienced, IMO something never done in the OT, and if they then fell away how can that unique experience (however) have accounted for anything different than the OT experience when the Spirit can depart from you? It seems paradoxical, although paradoxes by definition are assumed to be true.
I personally have an understanding that one can indeed fall away (sorry to bring that much debated conclusion to the table in this larger discussion) if they repeatedly reject both God's mercy and judgment. I also believe that the salvation under the new covenant and the indwelling of the Holy Spirit is something entirely unique (though always promised, prophesied about, and foreshadowed) and that we cannot pawn it off as just being, "the same as how the Spirit operated in the OT". But then my dilemma is, in light of apostasy, how can we really distinguish the unique operations of the Holy Spirit under the new covenant from His operations in the Old Covenant? I suspect that it actually has something to do with, under this new dispensation, the fact of the Spirit's indwelling (not to visit - or occasionally rest upon) in us along with the Father and Son (as promised), which provides us with unparalleled access to the Father since the veil has been torn and the entrance to the holy of hollies has been opened, and now secured us under a new covenant. And now with a new covenant we thus experience the new promises under it, but also with greater responsibility, which if abused can end us up in the same situation as anyone who apostatized in the OT. That is an inkling I have of the true answer that I feel explains this. But I'm open to other thoughts, and I encourage and invite them.
[continued briefly below]