follower of Christ said:
As I said, your two short passages ARENT the whole truth in this matter and they DONT say what you seem to believe.
They say enough. They say that marriage to one put away is commiting adultery. The end of Matthew's verse says that quite clearly.
follower of Christ said:
NO statement is made about the subsequent marriage, chap...ONLY that sin is committed when they cast out their innocent wives as they were to marry someone else.
Go and read it again. Your exaggerations aside, it doesn't appear to have sunken in yet.
...whosoever marries her that is put away commits adultery.
How much clearer does it need to be said. This refers to a person put away, separated. Marrying such a person refers to a "subsequent marriage", does it not? And this is Matthew's gospel, the one with the exclusion clause...
follower of Christ said:
I READ the words of Christ, poster...and there is MUCH more than your two pet passages to this issue. And they DONT say what YOU claim they say...that is confirmed by the greek itself as Ive already proven.
I didn't say that was all that the Bible says about marriage... Nor are they my "pet" passages. They say exactly what I am saying, since the first Christians ALSO did not allow subsequent marriages after a separation. Would you like me to post the pertinent data from the ancient Church Fathers?
follower of Christ said:
1 Cor 6:16....even a man being with a HARLOT is deemed as being 'one body' with her and shown as being exactly the same thing as in marriage.
But then *I* already posted this information and apparently you simply dont have the energy to read it.
I see. Ad hominem. I have noticed your posts are full of them. That's the best you can do? An avalanche of derision and cut and pastes with nary a thought about the meaning of Sciptures. We shall soon see this play out. Be patient with me, although I have not worked these passages for "5000 hours"...
Now.
Perhaps you are unaware that God calls Israel a harlot? Does this mean God has sexual relations with Israel?
Please... Are you SURE you've read the Scriptures? Give us a break. Harlot does not always mean a person who has sex... We are speaking of Sacred Scriptures here, not MTV.
The readers of Scriptures knows that "harlot" means one unfaithful to God.
follower of Christ said:
Even with a HARLOT a man is 'one flesh' with her as in marriage. The ONLY conclusion that fits is that being 'one flesh' with her is sex..since we KNOW a man isnt married to the harlot just because they have sex.
Being joined as one flesh has little to do with sex. Why your perversion with sex?
What about cases where sexual intercourse is not possible? Is such a marriage not "one flesh"? Try to get your mind out of the gutter and into the Bible. Marriage isn't about getting to have sex legally. It is much more. Being made "one flesh" is being so close that two people very nearly become as one nature, just as God HIMSELF is indeed three persons but one nature.
Read more closely Genesis 2:23-25.
And the man said, This [is] now bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called Woman because she was taken out of Man. Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother and shall cleave unto his wife; and they shall be one flesh. And they were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.
God created Eve to be a PARTNER, someone to share their life with Adam, not as a sexual toy. A man leaves his family and clings to his wife - meaning they share a relationship more meaningful then shared with his family. They share one body (as Paul states...) with each other. My body does not belong to me, but my wife. But not only that,
we also are no longer independent. We share each others concerns, welfare, goals in life, hopes and dreams, etc. WE BECOME ONE BODY. AS ONE PERSON. Try to wrap your mind around this - marriage is MUCH more than sex, since many people get married and RARELY have sex - and many more have very strong relationships and have moved beyond sex (like older couples).
Your meaning of marriage is to have sex. You are Wrong, and it is such thinking that is destroying the institution of marriage. ESPECIALLY when YOU condone getting another marriage when the first is not sexually fulfilling, which is what you strongly imply when you say "one flesh" refers to sex.
follower of Christ said:
*I* SAID that God JOINS us in a marriage COVENANT.
Part of that covenant is being 'one flesh'....ie CONSUMMATION...
And you also are saying that man can separate what God has joined, despite CHRIST'S OWN COMMAND.
Oh, yea, that doesn't apply to you.
follower of Christ said:
And AGAIN I refer YOU to the part where PAUL INSTRUCTS believers to LET MAN SEPARATE thus proving that you have NO clue about what it is you preach...
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I am not talking about Paul. I am talking about Christ.
And YOU do not have a clue about what you are preaching, since you are justifying people leaving their marriage and doing JUST what Christ said NOT to...
Furthermore, Paul doesn't say that man separates what God has joined, does he?
No.
The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband lives; but if her husband dies, she is free 1 Cor 7:38
Oh. Looks like Paul and Jesus DO agree...
And now, to end this silliness...
If Paul thought that divorce and remarriage was OK, at the whim of either spouse in case of "fornication",
then WHY does Paul use the metaphor of a marriage between CHRIST and the CHURCH???
Try to think about it.
If what you are saying is true, then Christ can put aside His Church for "fornication" - which those who read Scriptures know - means to be unfaithful to God.
Ya really ready to make that claim, chap? Is God going to divorce His Church and join with another???