The point being, after several generations equal from the genus Homo started to appear according to the evolutionary theory, the single celled organism does not evolve into anything else - nor does it DNA change.
And the counterpoints being:
* Bacteria reproduce asexually, primates reproduce bisexual ly. This is a significant difference.
* The experimental populations are kept in controlled, identical environments in laboratory conditions, not in the wild.
* Multiple genetic changes have been observed in the various populations, including the development of the ability to metabolise citrate.
* Identical starting populations in identical environments demonstrated different genetic variation.
* Genetic variation involves changes in DNA.
Dinosaurs were destroyed/died suddenly, often attributed to a meteor crash. It didn't evolve into anything else.
Let's accept your scenario for the sake of argument. Very few mammal species co-existed with the dinosaurs, none of which is currently extant. None of the mammalian species alive today is found fossilised either together with or even in the same strata as dinosaurs, so where do you imagine the mammalian species alive today have come from?
Forensic paleontology is valid only if it does not try to fit things.
What should it do, then? Do you believe no reasoned conclusions can be drawn from finding a fossilised primate pelvic girdle other than that it is a primate pelvic girdle, for example?
When a skull or a bone is found, it is either a human or a monkey/ape and nothing in between.
Taxonomically, humans are apes, so your point is meaningless on that basis. That aside, however, on what grounds do you determine that a particular primate skull does not display transitional features?
Different Cultures have different skeletal structures based on interbreeding.
Examples and relevance? Are you suggesting that these differences are such as to confuse anthropologists as to what is a skull of Homo Sapiens and what isn't?
Bible also supports a race of Nephilim who are not humans but inter breeding with humans and I believe the different varieties apart from humans are because of this interbreeding before the antediluvian era. The word Nephilim is not actually giant but not known to anyone and the actual meaning is lost.
Bronze Age legend alone is insufficient to support such a conclusion. Are you trying to equate these legendary Nephilim with other species of Homo, for example, and, if you are, what evidence supports your hypothesis?
In several cases, only a thigh bone or a small finger bone is found and yet a whole skeleton is reconstructed, based on the assumption that such an old fossil person will look like this and must be this particular species.
Do you have a specific example in mind? None of the examples from your original citation seem to support this claim?
Radiometric dating has a fundamental problem of assuming a constant ratio throughout ages which is not according to the Bible based on the radiation-less perfect antediluvian era protected by a water canopy over the atmosphere which makes the occurance of several isotopes extremely less.
And your evidence for this is what, exactly? As far as I am aware, the Bible says nothing about the 'antediluvian era' being 'perfect' and 'radiation-less'. Indeed, given the legendary corruption that led to the destruction of virtually all of life on Earth at this time, the contrary rather seems to be the case.
Based on the Bible, there wasn't any rain ever occurred which shows a very different terrain and if that is true, then it is very much plausible that the occurance of very few radio isotopes in fossils and the sudden increase on that ratio in atmosphere will lead the scientists today to believe that they had been there for millions of years.
How is the alleged absence of rain a 'plausible' condition for the occurrence of 'very few radio isotopes' in fossils? Also, can I again point out that Carbon 14 dating is only good for dates something less than 100,000 years and is incapable of returning dates in the 'millions' of years.