Drew:
Your writing style is a little aggressive,.....
I am not intending to be aggressive - I underline and bold to draw the reader's attention to some key points. I can perhaps see how this may be seen as patronizing or aggressive.
,.. but let me just point you to First John also. We read that what is begotten of God sinneth not (1 John 5.18). Does this mean that Christians can't sin? No!
I am not sure that things are this simple. I agree that this 1 John text is challenging but it is not really relevant to the text at issue. Even if we agree that Christians do sin - and we let 1 John 5:18 slide for the moment - the person in Romans 7 is not merely someone who "still sins". The person described in that chapter is enslaved to sin, unable to do good, and subject to a "law" of sin and death. Can this really be a description of a Christian. I do not see how.
Now let's be fair: In Romans 8, we have a person who has clearly been
released from this very same law of sin and death. And, from context, it is clear that the person in Romans 8 is a Christian.
There is a whole block of arguments as to why the person in Romans 7 cannot be a Christian that I have not yet even begun to disclose. Up till now, I have been pointing out the person in Romans 7 cannot be a Christians because Christians
can do good (the person in Romans 7 says he cannot!!), and they are certainly not enslaved to sin (the person in Romans is so enslaved).
There is this funny tendency to think that the Bible is "all about us" - that every statement in it has
direct application to our lives. I suggest that this view is incorrect and that in Romans 7 in particular, Paul is explaining the experience of the unbelieving Jew who lives under the Law of Moses and cannot win victory that way.
And that brings yet another argument to the fore: Paul is talking about
the Law of Moses in Romans 7. And that law was given to Jews and Jews only. So how can Romans 7 be a general treatment of the experience of the believer?