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God May Hate You

C

cre8

Guest
When I hear people make comments to perfect strangers like "Jesus loves you," I immediately wonder what their knowledge of the biblical Jesus really is. Jesus, we read, will save a limited number of people. That explains why many people die and never believe in (or even hear about) Jesus. If Jesus indeed does love a specific person, then that person will be saved. This is also basic biblical study. Listen to what Jesus says in John 14:6:

"I am the way, and the truth, and the life; no one comes to the Father, but by me."

And in John 6:44,

"No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him; and I will raise him up at the last day."

These verses are extremely clear. The only way to come to the father is through Jesus. And the only way to get to Jesus is to be drawn by the father. In John 6:44, the ancient Greek word for draws literally means dragged. It is the very same Greek word, helkuo, used in Acts 16:19, "…they seized Paul and Silas and dragged them into the marketplace to face the authorities." This is what the Bible says regarding God’s sovereignty in salvation. So when people say things like "Jesus loves you" they may very well be wrong, according to the Bible. God, in clear biblical terms, may actually hate you. Hate that will flay you in burning flames forever. Your crime? You were not created with the ability to be drawn to Jesus.

-Gary Lenaire
 
You are forgetting that the Bible also says that
Rev 3:20 Behold, I stand at the door and knock. If anyone hears My voice and opens the door, I will come in to him and will dine with him and he with Me.
and
Luk 11:9 And I say to you, Ask and it shall be given you. Seek and you shall find. Knock and it shall be opened to you.

This means that Yeshua calls us all. It is up us to answer.

As for Jesus hating people, I don't think so. Jesus said to "love you neighbor", "Love your enemies", "Love your brothers". I think that covers everyone on earth. Why would Yeshua have us follows laws that He Himself did not practice.
 
2 Peter 3:9 says, "The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance."

God is willing to save anyone, but most people want nothing to do with what God offers if they can't do it themselves. They reject Him, and He is not going to just save unrepentent people. He says that "whosoever will may come", but most people won't come.
 
You are right, Jon-Marc, but does that mean that only certain people can come to Yeshua? If someone is repentent, do you believe that God will reject him if he did not choose him first? I don't believe that. The author of this thread seemed to be saying that very thing. He is using one verse in the Bible to prove his claim.
I have always been certain that there are some people that are chosen, that God calls a bit louder than others because this person has something big to give. But I believe that every one is called and it is their choice whether to listen to that call.
 
I agree with Christine here. I know where the OP is coming from, but I believe that the Scriptures do not in fact support the idea of limited atonement - that only some people are called to salvation. This has been the subject of some rather passionate debate here in these forums and doubtless throughout the ages.

If time permits, I will attempt to defend my assertion that the doctrine of limited atonement is not Biblically supported. For the present, I admit that I am not defending this view - merely expressing it.
 
This is a touchy, and very argumentative subject. Some can accept it, and some cannot. But according to Election, God will save a remnant of Israel, otherwise they would all be lost (Isa. 1:9). If God had not chosen to save some from among the gentiles, there would be no Bride. This is not according to any thing good or bad we have done, but according to divine choice.

When God threatened to destroy all the Hebrews, Moses contended with him. God told Moses I will not destroy them all, but I will judge whom I will, and have compassion on whom I will (Rom. 9:15-16). Did this mean any of them were any better, or less sinful NO!. This was Gods choice based on his divine right.

Some will argue well if any man repents will Jesus turn him away NO!, but no man repents unless he has first been given faith to do so, this is a work of the Father by his Spirit. Some become convicted but you see them soon fall away, these do not have true repentance, but an emotional response to the moment. So in order that we do not make these decisions, it is hidden from us, the key that sparks true repentance is the preaching of the cross (1st. Cor. 1:18).

So whether some agree or not, the fact still stands there is an order of Election from all men.
 
Romans 8:29 says "For whom he did foreknow". He knew who would come to Him and who wouldn't even before we existed. Those that He KNOWS will accept Him and His son, those He has predestinated to be conformed to the image of His son.

Why make "predestination" more complicated than it is? God did NOT "predestinate" who He would and would not save. What He predestinated is that we will be conformed to the image of His Son just as it says in Romans 8:29. Would He be a just God if He did that? The word "predestinate" goes with the words "conform to the image of His Son", and NOT with the idea that He only saves those He has decided He will love, and the rest are tough out of luck.

Also, The words "whosoever will may come" would have to be stricken from His word, because it would be a lie, and God does NOT lie. If He said "whosoever" then He MEANT "whosoever", and that includes EVERYONE. It does NOT mean just the few that He has decided to save.

Why do people leave out the word "FOREKNOW" and go directly to "predestinate" and say that God will only saves a few that He has decided are worthy to be saved, while rejecting anyone He has not chosen even if they repent? That is not biblical, and it would certainly not be the just and loving God I know.
 
God does not reject anyone, it is in mans sin nature to reject God. Unless God had made it possible none would come to God.

How do you, or I declare God just, or unloving. God has proven his love, for the fact he was not obligated or did not have to save anybody.

If we have to place blame it is man that does not love God, not God that rejects man. The fact that he decided to save those he foreknew, again proves his love. And we don't have knowledge of what he foreknew, or what the decision to choose some is based on. So all we can say it is by Devine right.

Why some have such a hard time with this I don't know. When Jesus sent out the disciples, and they returned joying over the works they had performed. He told them not to joy over the works, but that their names had been written in the book of life.
 
Cre8 said:
"I am the way, and the truth, and the life; no one comes to the Father, but by me."

And in John 6:44,

"No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him; and I will raise him up at the last day."

Gary, brings up a good point. No one can come to the Father unless drawn. In Romans Paul makes it clear, the natural mind is enmity against God, enmity means extremely hostile towards God. No one would come to Christ in there natural sinful state, so God draws some and leaves the rest in their sins.

Some will try and tell you that all people are drawn to Christ, but this passage continues to state, those drawn will be "...taught of God." John 6:44, 45

Those who are drawn to God by the power of the Holy Spirit are taught by God. Since not everyone is taught by God or even had the chance to accept or reject the Gospel offer before dying, not all are drawn to God.

As for the atonement, it's limited. One limits it's power by saying God is doing His best to save everyone but is unable to because man rejects His offer, the other it's scope by saying those whom God wants to save will in fact be saved.

Peace,

jm
 
The following material challenges the notion that John 6 supports the assertion that "those whom God wants to save will in fact be saved":

We start with the text of John 6:37-40 as rendered in the NASB:

37. All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out.

38. "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.

39"This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.
40"For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day."


What exactly does “all that†in v37 and v. 39 refer to?

Calvinists will identify the "all that" in verses 37 and 39 as "those whom, in his great love, he elected long ago to save, and cannot help but be drawn into the Kingdom." We shall see that this is not the only possible conclusion when we consider the possible meanings of the "all that" found in verse 39 in light of the the content of verse 40, taking into account some significant structural similarities between v 39 and v. 40.

Note the parallel structure of verses 39 and 40 – they each have 3 clauses that map almost perfectly from one verse to the other. They both have the same A-B-C structure.

First, we should note the connective word "for" in verse 40. This establishes a logical connection between these two verses, suggesting an act of clarification on Jesus’ behalf. The "all that" in verse 39 whom the Father "has given" to Jesus is none other than "everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him" as per verse 40. You can probably see where I am going.

If we allow verse 40 to be used as a clarifying referent to disambiguate the "all that" in verse 39, the 2 verses taken together can be seen to be consistent with a reading that "all who freely come to believe in Jesus" are given to the Son by the Father. The people that are "given" are given in their state of already having freely (without an irresistable "tug") accepted Jesus' offer of salvation.

This text does not support an "irresistable grace" interpretation to the exclusion of other interpretations.
 
While Calvin was right about election, that only those chosen by God would be in the end the only ones saved. He missed the boat on what keeps the playing field level. Irresistible Grace just does not cut it.

While God has chosen those to whom he will reveal the truth to, it is now each mans responsibility to accept or reject that truth. Calvinists will say NO! NO! that's not the way it is, those who are elect have no choice in the matter. In my opinion this is Gods way of keeping his choice Just. Although those he has not chosen will not respond, the possibility for those he has chosen to reject that truth; remains open.
 
Gary, brings up a good point. No one can come to the Father unless drawn. In Romans Paul makes it clear, the natural mind is enmity against God, enmity means extremely hostile towards God. No one would come to Christ in there natural sinful state, so God draws some and leaves the rest in their sins.

This is true, but that doesn't mean that the person in question hasn't hardened their heart and rejected multiple "wooings" of the Holy Spirit already. This I believe is the unforgivable sin, which Jesus mentions and that I believe Hebrews 6:4-6 & 10:26-29 describes.

God said, "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated". I think this is because of how flippant Esau was with his birthright and Esau's heart in general. But this "hate" wasn't developed until well after Esau had done all these things, I think he rejected God's moving in his life. God doesn't go around hating sinners, he only hates those who once they see the truth and are prompted by His Holy Sprit repeatedly reject Him out of their stubborn wickedness.
 
When I hear people make comments to perfect strangers like "Jesus loves you," I immediately wonder what their knowledge of the biblical Jesus really is.

The Biblical Jesus is the one who hung out with prostitutes, treacherous tax collectors, the sick, and other groups of people anathema from the general "holy associations" that the priests engaged in. Jesus came to save the lost. Remember, "God so loved...that he gave...". Our Jesus was a heretic of his time because he dared to love those most hated by the world to show his salvation to all.
 
Drew, you are a wordy devil, but you’ve posted that kind of response before. The points you did raise are dealing with irresistible grace, not election, so you’re off track. The style with which you post often sways the reader, but this is a matter of style, not truth. You’ve seen rebuttals to your view of John 6 before, I know, I posted it but for the benefit of the reader I’ll re-post a few responses the readers of this thread should be aware of before they make up there minds…which brings me to another point.

It seems no matter how clear a text is man will resort to his tradition and do whatever it takes to defend that tradition. No one quoted Calvin, no one claimed to be representing Calvinist belief, yet we see this name tagging immediately. I wonder if I should really take the time to respond, since Drew’s presuppositions will not allow for God to sovereign.

39"This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.
40"For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day."

The three clauses a,b,c within each verse:

39a]This is the will of Him who sent Me,
40a]For this is the will of My Father,

39b]that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing,
40b ]that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life,

39c]but raise it up on the last day.
40c]and I Myself will raise him up on the last day.

So we know from the [a] verses that:
this is the will of the Father who sent Him and,

from the [ b ] verses that:
all the Father has given Him will behold the Son and believe in Him AND will have eternal life and not be lost and,

from the [c] verses that:
Jesus will raise them up on the last day.

WE can interpret the [ b ] verses as we do because of these verses:

44No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day. 45It is written in the Prophets, 'And they will all be taught by God.' Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father comes to me-- 46not that anyone has seen the Father except he who is from God; he has seen the Father. 47Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever believes has eternal life.

and verse 37
37. All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out.

Verse 44, 45, and 37 tells us that All the father teaches are drawn to Jesus and given to Jesus from the Father.

The negative seals it: No one can come unless drawn. All who come are therefore drawn, and all will receive eternal life.


The first error I noticed is that there is an assumption that designs the conclusion which is The people that are "given" are given in their state of already having freely (without an irresistable "tug") accepted Jesus'offer of salvation. If this is to justify the alleged 'free-will' consideration of the worthiness of God's salvation, how then can an ungodly person do so who has no ability to see (know/understand) the light (truth) of the gospel; And even if our gospel is veiled, it is veiled to those who are perishing, in whose case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelieving so that they might not see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God, 2 Cor. 4:3,4. There is neither the explicit nor implicit understanding in John 6 that an ungodly person has such a freeness in their natural 'will' (desire) to judge the worthiness (personal value) of God's salvation in order to determine if it is what they want. Furthermore, the Apostle's teaching in Ephesians 1:4,5 cannot be clearer in regards as to whose 'will' is in control of man's salvation, ...as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will.... It is God's 'will', not fallen man's, that accomplishes man's salvation and John 1:13 clearly states the receiving of this salvation is NOT according to the 'will' of man.

Verse 37 does not imply that those who come to Christ do so according to their own desires. John 1:13 refutes that explicitly. Verse 38 clearly tells us that not even the God of creation came to earth to consider His own 'will' as the controlling factor in man's salvation but what we must remember is that the Triunity of God covenanted before creation to create, establish and administer the Everlasting Covenant in which fallen man is brought into a salvific relationship with God. The 'free-will' theist literally places more authority for one's salvation in the 'will' of the ungodly than God Himself. It is a serious matter to give the ungodly more sovereignty than the most Godly of all.

The second error I noticed is the un-Biblical doctrine of 'possibilities' which are also given more sovereignty than the explicit statements of Holy Scripture as found in this comment, Calvinists will identify the "all that" in verses 37 and 39 as "those whom, in his great love, he elected long ago to save, and cannot help but be drawn into the Kingdom." We shall see that this is not the only possible conclusion when we consider the possible meanings of the "all that" found in verse 39 in light of the the content of verse 40, taking into account some significant structural similarities between v 39 and v. 40. 1) Possibilities are NOT facts. That is why they are only possibilities. 2) Where does Scripture state the possibilities or that possibilities have more authority than facts clearly stated?

Verse 39 makes it clear that Jesus saves those whom the Father gives Him and of whom the Father gives Jesus for the sole purpose of salvation, none will or can ever not have that salvation. Again, upon what basis does the Father give anyone to Jesus? John 1:13 clearly removes the 'will' of the ungodly as the deciding factor and since Eph. 1:4,5 clearly state that one's salvation (election to salvation) is according to the Father's 'will', any attempt to subvert the Father's 'will' is the same as rejecting the authority of God's Word. The 'all that' is immediately related to 1) those whom the Father gives to Jesus and 2) those whom Jesus will never lose (salvifically) and 3) those who will be raised to everlasting life and 4) those who will believe which results in 5) everlasting life.

all who freely come to believe in Jesus is in neither the text nor the context and if they are saved apart from what you call an irresistable "tug", then God's word is both contradicted and made void since fallen man's 'will' is not involved in receiving salvation and God clearly states nobody can come to Him for salvation without that irresistable "tug".
[/color]

"As I pointed out, the passage is explaining the unbelief of the Jews. Remember that the end of John 6 all these would-be disciples, other than the twelve, walk away. They were surface followers who were scandalized by the gospel message. That is why Jesus refers to their unbelief, and explains their unbelief in the words of John 6:37ff. The key issue that your entire presentation fails on is this: all that are drawn by the Father to the Son are raised by the Son on the last day. To be raised by the Son is to be given eternal life. Jesus gives eternal life to all those given to Him by the Father (6:39). See the connection? The effectual drawing of the Father to the Son is what guarantees the truth of 6:37: “All that the Father gives Me will come to Me.†Why? Because God draws them. Beautiful consistency is the hallmark of sound exegesis of the inspired Word." Taken from: http://aomin.org/DHOpenLetter.html

The "unbelief" that James refers to is found in verse 36:
"But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not." (KJV)



While Calvin was right about election that only those chosen by God would be in the end the only ones saved. He missed the boat on what keeps the playing field level.

Which is what this thread is about, you agree with Calvin and therefore you agree that God the Father draws only the elect.

Irresistible Grace just does not cut it.

You followed Drew’s red herring…tricky devil isn’t he.

While God has chosen those to whom he will reveal the truth to, it is now each mans responsibility to accept or reject that truth. Calvinists will say NO! NO! that's not the way it is, those who are elect have no choice in the matter. In my opinion this is Gods way of keeping his choice Just. Although those he has not chosen will not respond, the possibility for those he has chosen to reject that truth; remains open.

Sorry friend, but you don’t know what you’re talking about, no Calvinist I know would agree with what you’re saying. When we are born again we run to God, we’re not drawn kicking and screaming, but understand the goodness of God and run into His loving arms.

READER: If you’re interested in learning what a Calvinist believes on this topic, ask a Calvinist, or you’ll find yourself repeating the errors like one given above.

This is true, but that doesn't mean that the person in question hasn't hardened their heart and rejected multiple "wooings" of the Holy Spirit already.

So God isn’t able to convict a person of sin? Does the Holy Spirit fail at His job in convicting sinners?

God said, "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated". I think this is because of how flippant Esau was with his birthright and Esau's heart in general. But this "hate" wasn't developed until well after Esau had done all these things, I think he rejected God's moving in his life. God doesn't go around hating sinners, he only hates those who once they see the truth and are prompted by His Holy Sprit repeatedly reject Him out of their stubborn wickedness.

I understand where you’re coming from but what you posted doesn’t line up with Romans 9. The text reads, “(For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;)†We see it’s God’s calling , not anything we do, it’s in the Bible.

In the past I would really dig in to a topic like this, spend time reading and re-reading it, making rebuttal posts, etc. but it was often fruitless. I’ll be around I just don’t know how much I’ll post in here.

God bless,

jm
 
I found an interesting take on the doctrine of limited atonement on the web page of someone named Eric Svendsen. He apparently does not ascribe to the doctrine of limited atonement but claims to hold the 4 other points.

My source for what follows is:

http://ntrminblog.blogspot.com/2004/12/ ... dcast.html

I make no secret - I find the doctrine of limited atonement to be disturbing and I admit to an a priori inclination to reject it. Of course, how I happen to feel about the doctrine does not make it true or false. I am not claiming to agree with all that is written, but that is of no concern. The reader is invited to consider the strength of the actual arguments. Who knows, this guy might challenge my generally Arminian leanings. Live and learn......

Dr Svendson begins with a presentation of his understanding of the limited atonement argument. The remainder of this post are the words of Dr. Svendsen. I found the stuff that I rendered in bold to be particularly interesting.

1. Christ’s death is effectual, and it fully accomplished its intended goal.

2. The intended goal of Christ’s death was to make a substitutionary atonement for sins.

I am in agreement with these two points. I believe Christ came to redeem his elect. I truly do not believe his intent for coming into the world and dying on the cross included the non-elect. In other words, He had only the elect in mind when he died for sins. But the five-point Calvinist draws the following points and conclusions from this that I believe cannot be substantiated:

3. Since Christ’s death is effectual (it accomplished the goal it set out to accomplish), then everyone for whom he died is saved (i.e., their sins have been “taken awayâ€Â).

4. Therefore, if Christ died for the entire world, then the entire world is saved.

5. Since we know the entire world is not saved (nor shall be), then Christ must have died only for those who will actually be saved; namely, the electâ€â€else, Christ’s death is both ineffective and insufficient for salvation.

Let me address all these points first in a general way. It seems to me that the underlying unsubstantiated assumption for points # 3-5 is that Christ’s death fully accomplished redemption in those for whom he died. Not only do I find no evidence for this in the New Testament, but there are passages that openly contradict it and for which I have seen no satisfying treatment from the limited atonement side. I’ll get to those momentarily.

Further, the passages that seem clearly to assert “Christ died for the elect†are mistakenly taken to mean “Christ died only for the elect.†The latter does not follow from the former. As an illustration, Paul states in Gal 2:20: “The life I live in the body, I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.†Here Paul tells us that Christ died for him (Paul). Yet no one would jump from that statement to the notion that Christ died only for Paul. Similarly, we cannot derive limited atonement from the passages that state Christ died for the elect.

Having prefaced my specific comments with those caveats, it is now easier to understand why I might disagree with point # 3 above. While I certainly believe Christ’s death was effectual (it fully accomplished its intent), I do not thereby believe that everyone whose sin was atoned for at the cross is automatically saved (more on this below).

Now to the passages that present various levels of difficulty for the proponent of limited atonement. The first one I would raise is 2 Pet 2:1:

“But false prophets also arose among the people, just as there will also be false teachers among you, who will secretly introduce destructive heresies, even denying the Master who bought them, bringing swift destruction upon themselves.â€Â

Notice that “false teachers†who will be “destroyed†are said to have been “bought†by the Master. In other words, there is no question that what is referred to here is the non-elect (they will be destroyed); and there is no question that redemptive language is being employed (they had been “bought/redeemed†by the Master). The word “bought†(agorazo) is the technical word for “redeemâ€Â; it means “to buy, purchase, ransom, or redeem.†It is the very same word used in 1 Cor 6:20, “For you have been bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body,†and 1 Cor 7:23, “ You were bought with a price; do not become slaves of men,†and in Rev 5:9, “You are worthy to take the scroll and to open its seals, because you were slain, and with your blood you purchased men for God from every tribe and language and people and nation.â€Â

I have read all the attempts to explain this passage from the limited atonement camp and none of them is satisfying because all of the explanations simply assume that redemption in toto is something that was fully accomplished at the cross. If one does not start with that premise, then one can easily explain how someone can be “bought†(redeemedâ€Â) at the stage of the cross (Christ bore his sin), without making the exegetical leap of asserting that this is someone who had been (or will ever be) justified. “Redemption†(like the word “salvation†and "sanctification") encompasses several stages, only one of which is Christ’s death on the cross. The one who is redeemed must also believe and be justified, and then be glorified before full redemption has occurred. The glorification of our bodiesâ€â€the point at which Christ “will transform our lowly bodies so that they will be like his glorious bodyâ€Ââ€â€is called the “redemption of our bodies†(Rom 8:23). In other words, part of me has not yet been redeemed. Yet no one would contend that we who are justified have not in some sense been redeemed already, recognizing in this case at least two stages of redemption. In fact, Paul goes on to assert:

"For in this hope [the redemption of our bodies] we were saved. But hope that is seen is no hope at all. Who hopes for what he already has? But if we hope for what we do not yet have, we wait for it patiently†(Rom 8:24-25).

We don’t yet “have†final redemption, even though we already have at least one stage of it. And so, we can recognize ar “stage†of redemption that took place at the cross without positing that that stage of redemption was “full†redemption that has already “saved†everyone for whom it was made. Hence, one can be “redeemed†in the sense that he was “bought†by Christ’s death without being justified and without partaking of the final redemption
.
 
JM said:
In the past I would really dig in to a topic like this, spend time reading and re-reading it, making rebuttal posts, etc. but it was often fruitless. I’ll be around I just don’t know how much I’ll post in here.
God bless,
jm

LOL, This is why when I see these ''arguments'' I just sit back and do nothing except post my ready made statement and here it is again.....

I am always amazed at how many hits this page gets on my website...

The doctrine of election raises serious problems in the human mind, so we must consider more fully what the Bible does (and does not) teach on this subject.

First, it teaches that God does choose men to salvation (2 Thess. 2:13). It addresses believers as those who are “elect according to the foreknowledge of God (1 Pet. 1:2). It teaches that people can know whether they are elect by their response to the gospel: those who hear and believe it are elect (1 Thess. 1:47).

On the other hand, the Bible never teaches that God chooses men to be lost. The fact that He chooses some to be saved does not imply that He arbitrarily condemns all the rest. He never condemns men who deserve to be saved (there are none), but He does save some who ought to be condemned. When Paul describes the elect, he speaks of them as “vessels of mercy which He had prepared beforehand for glory†(Rom. 9:23); but when he turns to the lost, he simply says, “vessels of wrath prepared for destruction (Rom. 9:22). God prepares vessels of mercy to glory, but He does not prepare men for destruction: they do this for themselves by their own unbelief.

The doctrine of election lets God be God. He is sovereign, that is, He can do as He pleases, although He never pleases to do anything unjust. If left alone, all men would be lost. Does God have the right to show mercy to some?

But there is another side to the story. The same Bible that teaches sovereign election also teaches human responsibility. No one can use the doctrine of election as an excuse for not being saved. God makes a bona fide offer of salvation to all people everywhere (John 3:16; 3:36; 5:24; Rom. 10:9, 13). Anyone can be saved by repenting of his sins and believing on the Lord Jesus Christ. Therefore, if a person is lost, it is because he chooses to be lost, not because God desires it.

The fact is that the same Bible teaches election and free salvation to all who will receive it. Both doctrines are found in a single verse: “All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will by no means cast out (John 6:37). The first half of the verse speaks of Gods sovereign choice; the last half extends the offer of mercy to all.

This poses a difficulty for the human mind. How can God choose some and yet offer salvation freely to all men? Frankly, this is a mystery. But the mystery is on our side, not on Gods. The best policy for us is to believe both doctrines because the Bible teaches both. The truth is not found somewhere between election and mans free will, but in both extremes.
 
Well I say that the gift of eternal life is entirely God's choice. And if you don't understand or see it, then that is God's choice too. :wink:
 
So God isn’t able to convict a person of sin? Does the Holy Spirit fail at His job in convicting sinners?

The unbeliever can be convicted to a point where they recognize their sin, but they don't have to repent. As the saying goes "You can lead a horse to water but you can't make it drink."


I understand where you’re coming from but what you posted doesn’t line up with Romans 9. The text reads, “(For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;)†We see it’s God’s calling , not anything we do, it’s in the Bible.

Jgredline dealt with this nicely. Sovereign election and personal choice go hand in hand, and the same duality is seen in our salvation:

"Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling; for it is God who works in you both to will and to do for His good pleasure. " (Phillipians 2:12-13)
 
Fatalism, my friend. Zero soverenignty, it's all your responsibility, all is decided by fallen sinful man since God has to be given consent to save you.

BTW, the "carnal mind is enmity against God". We are "saved by grace, through faith" but the natural mind is hostile toward God.

We come to God by the power of the Holy Spirit who draws those who the Father has given to Christ, He rewards those who seek Him (Heb11:6) --- "for this is the work of God" JN 6

May God help us! [or in the case of the Arminian/Open Theist, May God assist us!]

;-)

PS: The offer of Salvation the jg is talking about is built on the assumption of ability. The Bible tells us that "there is no God seeker." That means no one seeks God. God gives us commands that we can't keep, where is the ability in "love the Lord your God with all your heart?" I'm not able to do it, at least not all the time, and you're fooling yourself if you think you can.
 
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