I would like to offer something that may perhaps shed a deeper understanding.
Scripture often refers to the 'church' as the 'bride'. A 'bride' is a woman. Isn't it possible and even likely that the reference to 'silly women' may well be a reference to 'churches'? You know, as in 'silly churches'. For it seems strange that the scripture would only mention 'women' when men are just as likely to be approached by 'false prophets' and led astray just as easily as women. And note that after the statement concerning 'silly women', an example is given of Jannes and Jambres and that their 'folly' would be manifest unto all men. No longer using the word women. So isn't it possible that the reference to 'silly women' may well be a reference to 'churches'? And the Bible wasn't written to those that won't read it or would find it to be foolishness. The Bible was written as edification to those that read it and understand it. It means little if anything to 'the world'.
Blessings,
MEC
Scripture often refers to the 'church' as the 'bride'. A 'bride' is a woman. Isn't it possible and even likely that the reference to 'silly women' may well be a reference to 'churches'? You know, as in 'silly churches'. For it seems strange that the scripture would only mention 'women' when men are just as likely to be approached by 'false prophets' and led astray just as easily as women. And note that after the statement concerning 'silly women', an example is given of Jannes and Jambres and that their 'folly' would be manifest unto all men. No longer using the word women. So isn't it possible that the reference to 'silly women' may well be a reference to 'churches'? And the Bible wasn't written to those that won't read it or would find it to be foolishness. The Bible was written as edification to those that read it and understand it. It means little if anything to 'the world'.
Blessings,
MEC