Butch5
Member
- Jul 16, 2012
- 5,372
- 295
OK. Give me your best verse that plainly teaches that one can lose salvation, and I'll show you that it doesn't.
And...11:29 doesn't mention promises. It specifically mentions GIFTS.
In fact, NO WHERE in Scripture are promises described as gifts.
Since 11:29 isn't about promises, but ACTUAL gifts, your analysis is incorrect.
OK. Show me EXACTLY where Paul "explained that gifts that he was talking about" in ch 11.
I said this:
"Sure. The gifts are based on believing. So what? Once given, they are irrevocable. There is NO condition on being irrevocable, as you're tying to SPIN IT."
Didn't you read my comment? I said "the gifts are based...". I said nothing about promises. Why do you consider promises to be gifts??
No one has shown that. It's been claimed, sure. But not shown.
I said this:
"I see it very clearly. God's gifts are irrevocable. Once given, He will NEVER revoke.
God's promises are irrevocable to Abraham. God swore an oath to Abraham, that's why His promises are irrevocable.
These aren't promises that are irrevocable. That is unreasonable."
There is NOTHING in the context that shows that ANY promise is a gift. Gifts are gifts, 3 of which Paul specifically noted.
So what? The Bible NEVER describes any promise of God as a gift, or favor. You've got no point.
Well, guess what!! Eternal life is a favor as well. Rom 6:23. And God's FAVORS are irrevocable.
None of this is relevant, since the Bible never describes any promise as a favor/gift.
It's all relevant. If you choose to hang your argument on a word that isn't even in the Greek texts It won't surprise me. As I said in the first post, there's no point in addressing these arguments. Those who hold the OSAS position will reject anything no matter what it is. The word "gifts" is not in the Greek texts, the word "charisma" is. You see this is one of the problems with English interpretations. The translators interpret too much. A little more translation and a little less interpretation and English speakers would have a much better understanding of the Scriptures.
You're argument that Paul is referring back to something five to eight chapters earlier rather than the immediate context shows that what you're claiming is wrong.