dadof10 said:
Who else could He be referring to, and why was this name the ONLY name Jesus used in a parable ever? What makes you think that He used the name to mean "helpless"?
Who said Jesus had to be referring to a "specific" person? The name Lazarus the Greek equivalent of "Eleazar" which is Hebrew for "God (is) helper" as in needing a helper, helpless without God. In the parable Lazarus is helpless.
You need to actually start reading what people post. Here is the conversation we are having on this point and your response makes no sense:
Huh? I was responding to your ridiculous notion that Jesus ONLY spoke in parables to the Pharisees, not what was or was not being conveyed. This is getting frustrating. Could you please try to actually read what i write and respond to it?
The verses of Luke 16:14-18 are "cryptic" in a way and specifically point out what Jesus is trying to tell (convey) the Pharisees. Verse 18 specifically says to the Pharisees that they have been "adulterous" to the word of God. This is not different that other areas of scripture that call the Israelites adulterous to the word of God.
Do you disagree?
I have no opinion since there is nothing in the parable that would suggest "anyone or anything" sent the two respective parties to their mythical destinations! One would have to assume facts not in evidence.
So, you are sticking with the "cartoonist notion" defense, with no further explanation of why this one parable is "cartoonist" and all the other parables are not? No explanation of why nowhere else in all of Scripture do we find any other "cartoonist" parables where "pagan notions" are used and not debunked. No explanation of this new method of Biblical criticism? I understand. I couldn't defend this silly position either. Better to just keep repeating "I already have".
No, many times I have explained that there is "nothing" absolutely "nothing" in the OT (Torah and Tanahk) that would explain the theory of "eternally burning hell." There is nothing that could possible confirm that "angels" take dead people anywhere.
Let me rephrase:
SDA: People die and enter into "soul-sleep". At the resurrection they are raised and judged. If they are damned, they are thrown into the "lake of fire" and are annihilated. They are not tormented for eternity, only until their annihilation is completed.
Parable: When people die they go to either Abraham's Bosom or Hades immediately. If they are damned they are tormented.
This is the contrast between SDA theology and the Truth. Of course you have to make the claim that this is cartoon-like, if you accept it as true your entire view of the afterlife goes up in smoke (pun intended).
No doubt some SDA's belief this. I of course believe the "lake of fire" is a metaphor and not an actual lake made of molten lava or fire.
I don't actually expect to get an answer, but I'll ask anyway. How so?
Because as I have said many times before there is nothing in the Torah or Tanahk that say anything about "eternally burning hell." It simply isn't anything taught in the law and prophets. The Pharisees should have known this. Jesus was openly "mocking" there pagan beliefs.
Where in the OT are the "five blood brothers of Judah" referenced? NOWHERE.
Are you able to deduce these things on your own? Have you ever heard of the term "half-brother" or "half-sister?"
Gen 35:23 The sons of
Leah; Reuben (1), Jacob's firstborn, and Simeon (2), and Levi (3), and Judah (4), and Issachar (5), and Zebulun (6):
Gen 35:24 The sons of Rachel; Joseph, and Benjamin:
Gen 35:25 And the sons of Bilhah, Rachel's handmaid; Dan, and Naphtali:
Gen 35:26 And the sons of Zilpah, Leah's handmaid; Gad, and Asher: these [are] the sons of Jacob, which were born to him in Padanaram.
Surely you can clearly see that Judah only had "full blooded" relationship with five (5) others. All of Judahs other siblings were "half" brothers.
You are trying to draw a false parallel. What makes you think that the rich man is supposed to symbolize Judah?
Isn't it obvious?
Rom 3:1 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit [is there] of circumcision? 2 Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
Why not Rueben, he was the first born?
Reuben defiled his father's bed.
1 Ch 5:1 Now the sons of Reuben the firstborn of Israel, (for he [was] the firstborn; but, forasmuch as he defiled his father's bed, his birthright was given unto the sons of Joseph the son of Israel: and the genealogy is not to be reckoned after the birthright.
The five blood brothers of Judah....Give me a break.
Again, if you have anything to offer regarding this that could possibly show a different connection I'd love to see it. Otherwise, if all you can offer is squibs of "Give me a break" I'll have to conclude you have no desire to explore this. Or you could just take your priest or pastor's word for it!
The reference means that the rich man had five brothers. There's no need to try and find some hidden meaning in every detail of every parable. There are many parables that use detail just to make the story more interesting.
You're kidding right? There isn't a word spoken of by Jesus and that was recorded by the disciples that doesn't have any meaning behind it. The fact that you can honestly suggest that "no need to try and find some hidden meaning in every detail of every parable" is theologically lazy.
I can't, that's the point. There is no reference to any "five brothers" anywhere, which means either this was an actual person who died and the people who Jesus was speaking to knew who He was talking about, or it was a literary device to make the story more interesting. To try and stretch this to mean the rich man is supposed to symbolize Judah is futile.
There is clearly a reference to "five brothers" and I showed you where it was. The fact that you think that Pharisees wouldn't have known this things tells me you have put much thought in these things or have had these things revealed to you.
Yes, it means the man had five brothers. There is no hidden meaning.
Theological laziness.
Let me give you another parable from Luke to compare:
[/quote]
Luke 14:16-24
What is symbolized by the five yolk of oxen? Nothing.
Ox are beasts of burden. Five "yoke of oxen" would actually equal 10 oxes (two per yoke). How many tribes were taken away captive initially? 10.
Deu 22:1 Thou shalt not see thy brother's ox or his sheep go astray, and hide thyself from them: thou shalt in any case bring them again unto thy brother.
What does the field symbolize? Nothing.
The "field" always, always represents the "world."
Mat 13:38 The field is the world; the good seed are the children of the kingdom; but the tares are the children of the wicked [one];
What about the wife? Nothing.
Who or what is Jesus betrothed to?
2Cr 11:2 For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy: for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present [you as] a chaste virgin to Christ.
Eph 5:23 For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body.
They are just there to give examples of people who are too bound up in the world to come to the banquet. There is no hidden meaning in all examples within a parable.
There is deep meaning, sometimes many, many different meanings in every word spoken by Christ. That's the beauty of the word of God.
I didn't mean you made up the fact that Leah had five sons by Jacob and one of them was named Judah, I meant that you made up that the "five blood brothers" was EVER used in the OT to symbolize Judah, either the man or the Southern Kingdom.
It's self-explanatory isn't it?
So, let me get this straight. Judah has the "Word of God" and is only letting the "crumbs" get to the "helpless"? Is this the symbolism so far? Could you keep going, please? I'm curious as to how this fits in with the other things in the parable.
Wow! You're finally coming to it! Remarkable! Praise the Lord! Read Matthew 15 and you'll see this connection as well.
It doesn't just go someplace by itself. All is done by the power of God. Stop mischaracterizing ALL religion in an attempt to support your own.
The point is is that the "soul" goes "somewhere." The fact that most religions believe this is contrary to the Torah and Tanahk.
I notice you said "Only the Old Testament teaches...". The NT teaches Heaven or Hell, then? Certainly Jesus does in this parable.
There is nothing in the New Testament that teaches man roasts without mercy for eternity.
*EDIT* There is also this OT reference to the spirit "returning to the God that gave it":
Spirit=breath. The "breath" returns to God.
Gen 2:7 And the LORD God formed man [of] the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.
Job 27:3 All the while my breath [is] in me, and the spirit of God [is] in my nostrils;