dadof10 said:
Irrelevant. Since you snipped out what I was responding to, let me try one more time. I was responding to this quote by you:
Luke 16:14-18 is not "irrelevant" and is a tremendous set of verses that set up the instruction of the parables Jesus was giving.
That seems to be a common trait with you in your posts. Yell "irrelevant" as much as you can without actually addressing the point of the OP.
"Jesus only spoke to the Pharisees in parables. To suggest this discussion is not a parable when we are told Jesus only spoke to the Pharisees in parables makes little sense and is inconsistent with scripture and what is obvious."
Will you stand by the above statement in the face of overwhelming evidence and Biblical quotes to the contrary? Did Jesus ONLY speak in parables to the Pharisees? Yes or no.
What does Jesus say?
Mat 13:13 Therefore speak I (Jesus) to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand.
What do the scriptures say?
Mar 4:2 And he (Jesus) taught them many things by parables, and said unto them in his doctrine,
Mat 13:34 All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and
without a parable spake he not unto them:
Also, the word "spake" actually is the same word for "preach." So I think clearly the answer for me to your question is an emphatic "yes!"
Do you honestly believe that all Truth must be contained within the OT? For you is it "sola-Torah"? That's what it seem like you are saying. There is nothing in the OT that teaches the Trinity, that the Messiah would have 12 apostles, that circumcision would become obsolete, etc. There are many things that Jesus and the Apostles taught that are not within the pages of the OT.
I view both equally frankly and look at things this way. BTW, the "Godhead" (the Trinity) and the necessity of circumcision and it's purpose are clearly shown in the OT in many different ways, from direct language to sanctuary symbolism.
Well, as I mentioned Jesus mentioned these things to those who would know specifically what this meant.
WHERE ARE THE "FIVE BLOOD BROTHERS" SHOWN ANYWHERE IN SCRIPTURE TO REFER TO JUDAH, EITHER THE MAN OR THE KINGDOM?
Be serious. Draw the connection. If Judah had five blood brothers and it is clearly referenced in the scriptures that he did and there is no where else in scripture where a connection can be drawn then one has to say the two references are connected.
When I say that the name Lazarus is referring to the person in Scripture named Lazarus, you claim the NAME is symbolic for the "helpless",
That's correct. Now try to follow along......
I actually asked if it were possible that there were more than one person named "Lazarus" in the scriptures, in the time of Jesus' ministry. The Strong's says this is the name of 11 other Israelites (Elazar) in the Hebrew. In the Greek Lazarus is also the name of "two" Israelites, one being "imaginary."
So, is it possible that there were more than one "Lazarus" in Israel during Jesus' ministry? The point being of course that the word "Lazarus" is referring to those that were "helpless" without God. Hence another reason that this is a parable.
yet you see the five blood brothers as referring to Judah, when this parallel is NOWHERE in Scripture. I guess you'll only see what you want to see.
Correction. The parallel is certainly there. One just has to look for it. BTW, have you come up with any suitable ideas as to who those "five brothers" that Jesus was referring to could be or is that "irrelevant?"
LOL...Hardly obvious to me or anyone else, only you. And how does Rom 3:1 prove your point?
Who were the "oracles of God" given to? BTW, no need to state the obvious, I understand you don't want to see the truth.
So what? Remember we are talking about the rich man who is in Hades symbolizing someone with "five blood brothers". He is the villian in the parable. Don't you think Rueben would be a better candidate than Judah? Let's see just how convoluted this can get.
Did you not ask me why these things were given to Judah and nor Reuben?
Why not Rueben, he was the first born?
So when I explain to you why Reuben lost his birthright you say, "so what?" Look, if you don't want answers to your questions to ask them. If you don't like the answers given come up with proof texts that show I'm mistaken instead of "so what."
I'd expect such dialogue from a child frankly no a Dad of 10.
He is the villian in the parable
Really? What was his sin? What did the "rich man" do that was so villainous?
Don't you think Rueben would be a better candidate than Judah? Let's see just how convoluted this can get.
I explained how Reuben lost his birthright, and you said "so what!" Remember? This can only get "convoluted" when you reject sound instruction without offering anything in return.
If you think I'm wrong that's great, I've been wrong once or twice before. But do yourself a favor so you don't look completely lost, offer up something from scripture that counters what I'm saying instead of just saying "so what."
I don't really have any desire to explore your made-up fantasies, no. And I don't have to take anyone's word to see just how twisted your theology is.
"Made-up fantasies?" Look if I'm wrong show me where I'm wrong. When you use words like "made-up" or "twisted" without offering any correction (from scripture) then all you've resorted to is name calling.
Would you find it acceptable if your kids asked your priest a question about doctrine only to have the priest say their question was "made-up" or "twisted?" If you have a correction to offer be sure to use the Bible. If you just want to call names maybe you should refrain from answering any of my posts or threads.
Again, you have to actually read what we are writing. I'm not the only person complaining about this. You are twisting Lostlamb's words also. What I really said was: There is no HIDDEN meaning in every detail of every parable.
To which I responded:
There is deep meaning, sometimes many, many different meanings in every word spoken by Christ. That's the beauty of the word of God.
To call someone lazy who holds this view is an act of desperation by someone who's position is crumbling.
I only said this to a "prior" comment you made in the same post where you said:
There's no need to try and find some hidden meaning in every detail of every parable.
It appears to me that one may be the one that is purposely manipulating the threads and the order in which things have been said in order to paint a different picture. No biggie.
Where are the "five blood brothers" used to refer to Judah? Chapter and verse please.
Again, please see Genesis 35. You can't miss it.
These things have been "revealed to you"? By who? EGW? Well, whoever revealed them to you needs to find it in the OT or admit error, as you do.
All things are revealed by the Holy Spirit. The fcat you have to ask or ask in a deriding manner again says alot.
Sheesh...This is beyond a reach. Who, in your opinion, is examining to the 10 captive tribes (as opposed to the 12 tribes)? Is Jesus telling us that this person/s examination of the 10 tribes is getting in the way of "joining the banquet", which is an obvious reference to the Kingdom of God? How so?
Try to "think" of the people who Jesus was speaking to and what they would know. Who was Jesus speaking these parables to?
Always or just in Matt 13?
When referring to things prophetic? Always.
Luke 17:36 Two [men] shall be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left.
OK, let's think this one through. The person who is going to the Bride of Christ, the Church, is NOT doing the will of God, who is symbolized in the master of the house? By going to the Bride (wife) he is making God angry? I think you need to rethink this, at the least.
That's just it the parable of Luke 14:16-24 that you mentioned there is this verse:
Luke 14:20 And another said, I have married a wife, and therefore I cannot come.
The invitation to the feast was made by God but there were many making excuses as to why they could not come. One said he was married to a wife and could not come. A "wife" in many prophetic instances represents a bride. Christ is married to a bride. But this was before His death on the cross. So who is this "wife" and who is she married to? This "bride" spoken of here represents a "false" bride a "false" wife that prevents people from coming to the feast they were invited to.
[quote:rrmr2wae]I didn't mean you made up the fact that Leah had five sons by Jacob and one of them was named Judah, I meant that you made up that the "five blood brothers" was EVER used in the OT to symbolize Judah, either the man or the Southern Kingdom.
It's self-explanatory isn't it?
No, it is not. You need to explain why, in your opinion, people in Hades and angels carrying people to Abraham's bosom must be spelled out in the OT, but the five brothers can refer to Judah without EVER being symbolic of him ANYWHERE IN SCRIPTURE.[/quote:rrmr2wae]
How do you confuse the fact that Judah actually had "five blood brothers" by insisting I that I'm saying "Judah" is represented as "five brothers?"
Follow along: The "rich man" represents Judah. This fact is confirmed by Jesus' demonstration of the "five brothers" which ties the two symbols together.
I think sometimes you are perfectly obtuse for a reason.
Why does Judah alone have the Word?
It doesn't. It was given to "all" of Israel on the Mount. Judah was the only one left after captivity.
Is it a reference to the Southern Kingdom or the man himself?
Who was given the oracles of God? All of Israel or just Judah? Who was left with the oracles of God after the 10 tribes were taken out of the way?
Why don't the "helpless" want more of "the Word" than just crumbs?
Who said they didn't want more than crumbs? Read Matthew 15. They took what they could get although they desired more. Do you understand the notion of a "figure of speech?"
Mat 15:26 But he answered and said, It is not meet to take the children's bread, and to cast [it] to dogs. 27 And she said, Truth, Lord: yet the dogs eat of the crumbs which fall from their masters' table.
Please keep going, give me more "symbolism", this is hilarious.
Keep asking questions. The fact that you find things that you have admitted to that you have no knowledge of "hilarious" seems to indicate that you have no desire to learn or accept any other doctrine than what you are given or handed. What a shame.
2Ti 4:3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears;
But not contrary to the NT, or Ecc. 12.
Sure it is. Ec. 12 nor anything in the New Testament suggest that the soul lives forever outside the presence of God. Nothing suggests that upon death the "soul" leaves the body and fly's away someplace.
Our actual breath returns to God?
It's not "our" breath. How do you claim ownership for something you didn't make, or invent?
Gen 2:7 And the LORD
God formed man [of] the dust of the ground, and
breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.
The "breath" belongs to the one who gave it, que no?
Ecc 12:7 Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.
Spirit = ruwach = breath. Simple stuff.
Why would God want our breath and how does it return to Him?
See above. Not "our" breath, His "breath."
Job 27:3 All the while my breath [is] in me, and
the spirit of God [is] in my nostrils;
More creative interpretation.
Or simple misunderstanding. I vote for the latter!