How do you reconcile these various passages/verses?
"The LORD used to speak to Moses face to face, just as a man speaks to his friend." ~Exodus 33:11
////////////
17 The LORD said to Moses, “I will also do this thing of which you have spoken; for you have found favor in My sight and I have known you by name.”
18 Then Moses said, “I pray You, show me Your glory!”
19 And He said, “I Myself will make all My goodness pass before you, and will proclaim the name of the LORD before you; and I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and will show compassion on whom I will show compassion.”
20 But He said, “You cannot see My face, for no man can see Me and live!”
21 Then the LORD said, “Behold, there is a place by Me, and you shall stand there on the rock;
22 and it will come about, while My glory is passing by, that I will put you in the cleft of the rock and cover you with My hand until I have passed by.
23 “Then I will take My hand away and you shall see My back, but My face shall not be seen.” ~Exodus 33
////////////
"In the year of King Uzziah’s death I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, lofty and exalted, with the train of His robe filling the temple." ~Isaiah 6:1
/////////////
"No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him." ~John 1:18
//////////////
"He who is the blessed and only Sovereign, the King of kings and Lord of lords, who alone possesses immortality and dwells in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see." ~1 Timothy 6:15-16
//////////// (Edit: Here is one additional verse to consider)
Stephen said, “Behold, I see the heavens opened up and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God.” ~Acts 7:56
//////////// (Edit2: Here is another additional verse to consider and add into the mix above)
“God is spirit” ~John 4:24
In the NT, both the Lord Jesus and St. Paul make it clear that no one has seen God (nor can they see Him), but the OT appears to disagree with that. On top of that, the OT also seems to contradict itself (i.e. Exodus 33:11 vs Exodus 33:20).
So again, how can these passages be reconciled with one another?
Thanks!
Yours and His,
David
Edit3: p.s. - my proposition, that I'd like to either prove or disprove, is this: The physical appearances of God in the OT were all made by God the Son, not by His Father (who is "Spirit" and who "no one has seen").
"The LORD used to speak to Moses face to face, just as a man speaks to his friend." ~Exodus 33:11
////////////
17 The LORD said to Moses, “I will also do this thing of which you have spoken; for you have found favor in My sight and I have known you by name.”
18 Then Moses said, “I pray You, show me Your glory!”
19 And He said, “I Myself will make all My goodness pass before you, and will proclaim the name of the LORD before you; and I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and will show compassion on whom I will show compassion.”
20 But He said, “You cannot see My face, for no man can see Me and live!”
21 Then the LORD said, “Behold, there is a place by Me, and you shall stand there on the rock;
22 and it will come about, while My glory is passing by, that I will put you in the cleft of the rock and cover you with My hand until I have passed by.
23 “Then I will take My hand away and you shall see My back, but My face shall not be seen.” ~Exodus 33
////////////
"In the year of King Uzziah’s death I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, lofty and exalted, with the train of His robe filling the temple." ~Isaiah 6:1
/////////////
"No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him." ~John 1:18
//////////////
"He who is the blessed and only Sovereign, the King of kings and Lord of lords, who alone possesses immortality and dwells in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see." ~1 Timothy 6:15-16
//////////// (Edit: Here is one additional verse to consider)
Stephen said, “Behold, I see the heavens opened up and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God.” ~Acts 7:56
//////////// (Edit2: Here is another additional verse to consider and add into the mix above)
“God is spirit” ~John 4:24
So again, how can these passages be reconciled with one another?
Thanks!
Yours and His,
David
Edit3: p.s. - my proposition, that I'd like to either prove or disprove, is this: The physical appearances of God in the OT were all made by God the Son, not by His Father (who is "Spirit" and who "no one has seen").
"These things Isaiah said because he saw
His glory, and he spoke of Him"
John 12:41
His glory, and he spoke of Him"
John 12:41
Last edited: