mondar said:
IF the bible is full of errors and myths, why should I bother with any of it?
to many it is an intriguing piece of literature. the fact we live in a christian culture which attempts to impose its worldview on everyone also gives one cause to study it.
Yes, I see no logic in a gray view of the bible. It is either all truth and therefore Gods truth, or it is a pile of rubbish. If it has error, why should I trust any of it?
there are historical truths in it, and as i said, it is an intriguing piece of literature. i don't have a 'grey' view of it.
I think such statements show ignorance of the bible. The bible was written over a 1400 year period (conservative estimates). It went through two different Hebew alphabets (paleoHebrew and the Jewish script), and three different languages (Hebrew Aramaic and Koine Greek). The bronze age culture of Moses bore little similarity to the iron age culture of the Jews under Roman occupation. Their language was different, their technology was different, their life styles were different, their religious issues were different (the ancient Hebrews had issues of polygamy-the NT Jews had issues of legalism). Your statement above is not that much different from saying that modern people in the UK have changed little from the original Anglo's and Saxons that first invaded Briton.
you should have read the rest of what i said before you commented. anyway, we're talking about religious tradition passed down for centuries (i made no statements about political or social situations, which obviously change over centuries). and i never said that religious tradition was consistent. i just said similarities are to be expected, even though i believe there are contradictions, great and small. your analogy is false because it did not take into account everything i said (which you really didn't address/controvert) and instead opted to make a straw man out of my words. i believe hebrew religion evolved over the centuries just like any other. i also disagree with your 'conservative estimates'. and i'm confused by this statement:
'the ancient Hebrews had issues of polygamy-the NT Jews had issues of legalism'. i have no idea what you're basing this off of. it seems random and irrelevant to the issue on the table. anyway, you would do well to know your opponent's position before you erroneously erect straw men and charge 'ignorance'...a charge which seems to have back-fired.
you've made
no point here.
Your theory of canonization has internal inconsistencies, and is not based upon an accurate understanding of history. I dont have time to go into detail right now. But the bible was written as the bible. It may not have been complete, but when Ezra wrote Chronicles and the book of Ezra, it was accepted immediately as scripture. No one ever had to declare it canonical. When Paul wrote his epistles, they were seen as authoritative immediately. They did not need some man out there in the future to declare it canonical.
umm...no. the bible was not written as the bible (66/72 books). in order for that to happen the books would have had to be written together with one purpose in one volume in a relatively short span of time. and you rail about 'ignorance' and an inaccurate 'understanding of history'...
firstly, your examples of ezra and paul are unrepresentative and prove no point whatsoever. secondly, we don't know that ezra wrote chronicles (i have no problem with ezra writing ezra although some radical critics might disagree). thirdly, i'd like to see your evidence to whether or not ezra and chronicles were 'accepted immediately as "scripture"' and explain what you mean by that. and even if this suggestion were true, what does that prove? it certainly does nothing in the way of proving that the bible was inspired or that it was 'written as the bible' (i've never heard anyone claim that before) since when ezra/chronicles were written many of books of the bible did not exist!
fourthly, paul's epistles were
not immediately accepted as authoritative. that took a little while, and the letters had to be first
gathered (primarily), copied, published, and then weighed by the men of the early church.
lastly, the bible is a
canon of accepted sacred writings. men definitely had to bring
all the writings that comprise it together first and then declare it to be canonical and/or inspired for the bible to be
the bible. it cannot have been written as the bible before it actually became the bible. that's just about the silliest thing i have ever heard, and i have no idea what you're talking about. you're not making any points relevant to anything i said, and the points you are making carry little cohesiveness or reason. there were many books accepted by the hebrews as authoritative which are
not found in your bible. the same with christian literature. you're trying to make it seem as if everyone definitively knew what was inspired and what was not. that's about as 'ignorant' as it gets, since you want to talk about 'ignorance'.
Then there is nothing worthwhile about the bible either. It is nothing more then a false book about religious things that should not be read.
you have a very narrow view of reality. not my cup of tea. i doubt i'll continue dialoguing with you if you continue in this order...
So your not impressed? Maybe its because you know so little about the bible. To not see differences between a polytheistic or henotheistic bronze age culture with the Hebrew language, and a monotheistic iron age culture that speaks greek is a complete misreading of history.
1) you're rambling about your own straw man. i never said anything about the language remaining the same, and in fact, i believe the ancient hebraic culture was polytheistic/henotheistic in pre-exilic times and monotheistic in post-exilic times, and this is reflected in pre-/post-exilic biblical literature. that's one aspect of hebrew religion that evolved. again, know what you're talking about before you respond.
2) you entirely missed the point of what i said (or ignored it). my point was that all literature that comprises the bible is based on the idealogies and primitive beliefs of one culture/religion, which i
do believe evolved (things like language and technology being absolutely irrelevant to anything i said), so we are to expect similarities. the writings of the bible are not going to be completely disparate. further, with the formation of the canon, we're going to expect even closer similarities since men are going to choose those writings which agree with their beliefs. that's a point you have not addressed and it stands as a factor of common sense.
3) you seem to now be contradicting the very point you're trying to make. you're arguing for the bible's complete consistency and therefore inspiration (it seems)...but then you turn around and point out differences that contradict similarity points! did you forget what you were arguing? and some of your differences i never denied and some of them i absolutely agree with. so what is your point? you continue to make no sense.
This comment displays a complete lack of knowledge concerning the content of biblical prophecy.
it appears i'm 'ignorant' about many things in this dialogue, which you can't even point out due to straw men and the inconsistency of your argumentation....
The Jewish people suffered a complete dispersion across the face of the earth. And yet they retain their national identity.
perhaps superficially, yes. but i'd like to see the old tribal distinctions (don't forget those 'lost ten tribes') and proof that the 'jews' are who they say they are.
again, your point?
Three is amazing differences between nostradamus and the bible. I have yet to see a fan of nostradamus tell me what future event is going to happen. On the other hand, the bible predicts that the Messiah will return. It tells me the exact spot he will return (the mount of olives) and the prophetic time setting of the time (Day of the Lord) but not the exact time.
so...the validity of 'prophecy' is to be determined by what
has not happened yet? you continue to make no sense...
Filfilled prophecy is extremely exact. Isaiah predicted the fall of the kingdoms around him to the assyrian empire. He challenged the king of Israel not to depend upon that "broken reed" egypt. Isaiah later gave us the exact name of a Babylonian emperor (Cyrus).
i'm sure you're familiar with the divisions of the book of isaiah into the historical isaiah (chs. i-xxxix {1-39}), deutero-isaiah (xl-lv, {40-55}) and trito-isaiah (lvi-lxvi {56-66})...the latter two being post-exilic compositions (making the 'prophecies' invalid or debatable). even modern conservatives, like f.f. bruce, at least admit the existence of deutero-isaiah (which would be xl-lxvi). the point of much of ot prophecy is not to predict events far into the future, but to give hope in a time of contemporary trouble.
and cyrus, btw, wasn't a 'babylonian' emperor. he was a
persian emperor who conquered the babylonian empire.
I would suggest you study biblical predictive prophecy more before making such absurd comments. Do you know the difference between the prophetic genre and the apocalyptic genre of literature? Certainly some prophecies use the apocalyptic genre, but certainly not all. The bible has such variety of prophetic literary genre's that it is amazing. Nostradamus drones on with one literary style, a poetic/apocalyptic literary genre.
i would suggest you study contemporary works on some of the biblical prophets and the nature of 'prophetic' literature. i'm not sure what apocalyptic literature has to do with my points. you would do well not to go off on tangents that are in the habit of not actually addressing the points being made.
Again you display such ignorance of the bible. When Moses wrote his prophecies in Deuteronomy there was no divided kingdom. Do you realize that during the return of Israel to the land, there will be no tribe of ephraim? Look in the list of tribes in Revelation 7. The tribe of Joseph appears and there is no tribe of ephraim.
had you read what i said, you would have seen the comment i made that i do not believe moses wrote deuteronomy, and that the 'prophecies' about a return of israel to the land are post-exilic insertions and expansions (i specifically mentioned ch. i.1-40 and chs. xxviii-xxx) that relate to the end of the exile (not today). and again, you appear to be appealing to
the future to justify genuine 'prophecy' in the bible...which can only be vindicated
after the events have transpired...
claiming 'they will happen' is irrelevant to the point i'm contending and irrelevant to the point you're trying to prove. and you bring up another aspect of biblical contradiction: who actually comprises the twelve tribes of israel? that is to say, which tribes are the tribes of israel? (and where are they?)
Yes, I am fairly reformed, but not in escahtology. I would be willing to debate eschatology with my Calvinist brothers in Christ, but not now and here. The scriptures does teach premillenialism.
all power to you...but that's irrelevant to anything i said...
That is a misunderstanding of Christian doctrine. Have you ever bothered to read Romans 9-11? One quote and I have to go.... <snipped>...Time for work.... later.
...again...appealing to what you believe is a future event doesn't help prove biblical prophecy....
i'm sorry, but all of my original points stand until you actually address the issue.
~eric