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Bible Study I have a question

Corn Pop

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If sin was in the world before the Law was given, and the first law given was the commandment to Adam you shall not eat of the tree, and Adam was the first man, where was the sin in the world before the law was given?


Paul also said where there is no law there is no transgression. That is true because without a law then you cannot transgress.
 
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I think you have to delve more deeply into the nature of sin. Most people think of it as some form of transgression, which of course means that there must be some law to transgress against.

I would submit that there is a deeper meaning to the concept of sin, and that is to think of sin as separation. Specifically it is separation from God and His ways. Sin is narcissism at its finest, the illusion that we are autonomous beings rather than extensions of the God identity.

This kind of illusory existence became manifest at the point of self-awareness, specifically at the foot of the Tree of Knowledge of the Difference Between Good and Evil. When Adam took that first bite, Man's sense of separate-ness became incarnate, and sin as we know it was born.

Maybe this all sounds a little Buddhisty, but maybe a little cross-culturalism can provide needed insight.
 
What sin did Adam commit before the first law was given not to eat of a tree if sin was in the world before the law was given.

Because according to the bible the first law was given to Adam the first man not to eat of a tree. Before that where is the sin or who sinned?
 
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You are confusing The Torah with the law God spoke to Adam and Eve which is what Paul was talking about when sin existed before the codified Law/Torah was penned by Moses.

Paul was trying to separate the two time periods as briefly as possible due to the expense of paper and ink. He also lacked sufficient language (in Greek which was going to be translated into English) to say things in a manner that would lay things out extremely clearly for today.
But most commentators on this explain it out.
 
That would be the best excuse for an answer I have ever heard, the reason is the paper and ink was expensive, and for some reason he had to speak greek. Where did that come from John?
 
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That would be the best excuse for an answer I have ever heard, the reason is the paper and ink is expensive, and language for some reason he had to write in greek. Lol. Where on earth did that come from John?
And it's concentrated writing. But the two time periods was what he was talking about to a people who were not as familiar with the distinction as he was.

Before Moses penned the Torah (which translates literally as "Law") consisting of the first five books of the Bible, the Patriarchs all followed the Law naturally. Cain and Abel were making sacrifices "at the appointed time"... Abraham gave a tenth to the "high priest-king". There was some kind of law present...the Patriarchs basically establishing what was right or wrong.
 
What sin did Adam commit before the first law was given not to eat of a tree if sin was in the world before the law was given.

Because according to the bible the first law was given to Adam the first man not to eat of a tree. Before that where is the sin or who sinned?

The expression "the law" Paul used did not refer to "thou shall not eat of the tree that is in the midst of the garden," which you can correctly understand as the first 'law' given if you like. Paul was specifically referring to the law of Moses, which you can tell by the context of the passage as well as from Paul's writings generally.

It is a bit confusing, but John is correct. I also found it strange that Paul being "the Apostle to the Gentiles," that he would concentrate on Moses' law so much. Is it just that he's a Jew? No, it's not. Without being anchored in Moses, Paul's writings can be dismissed as separate from Jesus' words, the way so many scoffers have been doing for some time. (even in the church)
But once you have a solid grasp on the Covenant God had with the Jews through Moses, you realize Paul made nothing up, everything he said had been there all along, he was just the first to see it so clearly. By Divine revelation, of course.
 
The command that Adam received is not the same of the Mosaic laws God gave to Moses. Sin entered into the world when Satan rebelled against God as Satan introduced sin into a perfect world as he used the serpent in the garden to tempt Eve and then she gave Adam to eat.
 
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