How is this a problem? Peter used the term kosmos appropriately in that verse, while eretz was improperly translated as such in other verses.jasoncran said:so using that word, was the original for this verse, jn 3;16. peter spoke and wrote in what lanugage in 2 peter and jesus spoke aramiac, so if its for god so love this "land that he gave his only begotten son to die for it. then only the children of isreal are to be saved.
a problem indeed.
with peter he used kosmos for the old world being judge by water, so what original language was spoken by peter, aramaic. or koine greek. when he wrote the epistles.
That some instances of eretz were improperly translated as kosmos does not mean that every mention of kosmos must mean the same as eretz.
That'd be faulty logic. Basically you're argueing that since apples are fruits, all fruits are therefore apples. Using the situation at hand, the analogy goes, "since eretz was translated to kosmos in that one case, kosmos always means eretz whereever it is used". That's obviously not correct.
And even if it were valid logic, that still wouldn't change the fact that eretz does not mean the same as kosmos.