"II Peter 2:1 But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction."
It should be clear, these false teachers are unsaved. They are compared to dogs and pigs, not to sheep as believers are (see 2 Peter 2:22). These people are described in Jude 19 as being "devoid of the Spirit." If a person does not have the Spirit of God within, he is not a child of God (see Romans 8:9). He may seem to be saved and even become a member or an officer in the church, but eventually, the true nature will be shown, they will deny the Lord in same way.
This passage is NOT discussing the atonement of Christ, when Peter writes about the Lord that "bought them" he is not writing of Christs blood atonement. Peter writes this letter to the Jew (hold on, this isn't dispey theology) who was not a Christian, so "the Lord" would be in refer to God the Father and not the Lord Jesus Christ for the Jews were "bought" by God in the Exodus.
James White makes the argument that in the Greek, "Lord" is not used for Jesus. It is also translated as 'Master' and may be used to refer to Satan.
God bless,
Jason :smt006
It should be clear, these false teachers are unsaved. They are compared to dogs and pigs, not to sheep as believers are (see 2 Peter 2:22). These people are described in Jude 19 as being "devoid of the Spirit." If a person does not have the Spirit of God within, he is not a child of God (see Romans 8:9). He may seem to be saved and even become a member or an officer in the church, but eventually, the true nature will be shown, they will deny the Lord in same way.
This passage is NOT discussing the atonement of Christ, when Peter writes about the Lord that "bought them" he is not writing of Christs blood atonement. Peter writes this letter to the Jew (hold on, this isn't dispey theology) who was not a Christian, so "the Lord" would be in refer to God the Father and not the Lord Jesus Christ for the Jews were "bought" by God in the Exodus.
James White makes the argument that in the Greek, "Lord" is not used for Jesus. It is also translated as 'Master' and may be used to refer to Satan.
God bless,
Jason :smt006