Bible Study In Ro 11:28, did ἐχθροὶ (enemies) and ἀγαπητοὶ (beloved) imply the same pronoun?

[TonyChanYT]

ESV, Ro 11:

28 As regards the gospel, they are enemies for your sake.
But as regards election, they are beloved for the sake of their forefathers.

Note the parallelism.

Were the two 'they' refer to the same group of people?

A caller asked Steve Gregg about the this verse. He replied (at time = 21 minute):

It doesn't say that the Jews are beloved. It says the elections are. … I encourage anyone to look it up in the Greek, as I had done. … In the Greek, it says according to the election, they are beloved for their fathers sake.

Gregg interpreted it this way: The Jews are enemies for your sake. The election is beloved for the sake of their forefathers.

He claimed to have justified his interpretation by looking at the Greek.

Let's examine the Greek:

[they are] enemies
ἐχθροὶ (echthroi)
Adjective - Nominative Masculine *Plural
Strong's 2190: Hated, hostile; subst: an enemy. From a primary echtho; hateful; usually as a noun, an adversary.

"They are" was not explicit in the Greek. As usual, pronouns were often implied. The plural adjective ἐχθροὶ/enemies implied the Jewish people. Neither Gregg nor I disputed this part of the sentence.

election,
ἐκλογὴν (eklogēn)
Noun - Accusative Feminine Singular
Strong's 1589: A choosing out, selecting, choice (by God). From eklegomai; selection.

ἐκλογὴν/election was singular.

[they are] loved
ἀγαπητοὶ (agapētoi)
Adjective - Nominative Masculine Plural
Strong's 27: From agapao; beloved.

ἀγαπητοὶ/loved was plural. Had Paul wanted to refer only to the election, I would expect G27 in singular form. The plural matched the plural form of ἐχθροὶ/enemies. Both adjectives ended with the spelling oi. Greek listeners would naturally assume the same pronoun being referred to by the two adjectives. Paul did not restrict the beloved to the election alone.

In Ro 11:28, did doἐχθροὶ and ἀγαπητοὶ refer to the same group of people?

Yes, according to the plural adjectives.

What was Paul saying?

The terms ἐχθροὶ and ἀγαπητοὶ both described Israel, but from two distinct parallel perspectives:

1. In relation to the gospel, many in Israel rejected Christ and were regarded as "enemies" of God's purposes concerning salvation through Jesus Christ.
2. In relation to God's eternal covenant and election, Israel remained "beloved" because of God's faithfulness to his promises to the patriarchs. God didn't love them because they rejected Christ but for the sake of their forefathers (διὰ τοὺς πατέρας). God didn't abandon his love for the Jews.

This verse reflects a theological tension. On one hand, Israel’s rejection of the gospel resulted in judgment ("enemies"). On the other hand, God’s covenant with Israel remained unbroken, and He continued to show mercy and love toward them ("beloved").

Gregg continued:

It's not the Jewish race are beloved. If they were, then all the Jews would be saved just by that [verse].

Gregg jumped to a conclusion.

Did Paul suggest that all these beloved in Ro 11:28 would be saved?

No.

Ro 9:

27 And Isaiah cries out concerning Israel: “Though the number of the sons of Israelc be as the sand of the sea, only a remnant of them will be saved.

Paul singled out a remnant subset of the general Israel population.

Ro 11:

7 What then? Israel failed to obtain what it was seeking. The elect obtained it, but the rest were hardened.

Only the elect/remnant will be saved.