Quite the assumption to make, not to mention you seem to read lengthy explanations and excuses as to why the Bible is not true.
No, I rarely do. I write them, yes. I have read Spinoza's
Theological-Political Treatise (often seen as the first work of biblical criticism), and some other older works like David Hume's
Natural Religion, but I rarely read such
modern books.
Remember, these books were written thousands of years ago in languages that no longer exist, for a specific people group (in the OT), for specific reasons, within specific cultural, historical, and theological contexts that must be taken into account. So far, your arguments have completely avoided these, which is why I recommended the book.
I thought the gospel was "cross-cultural." Or at least that's a common catchphrase. Does culture excuse a nation's laws? Here is my point:
If there truly exists the biblical God, he should transcend the brutal cultures of his time, rather than conforming to their contexts. Here are a few comments on some of Copan's words.
Copan happily cites Hammurabi Code (which I have read fully): "Hammurabi called for the death penalty to those helping runaway slaves." He cites §16. And he condemns this, rightly, but does not excuse it on the basis of culture.
Copan says of the Hammurabi Code:
Not only do we find morally inferior cuneiform legislation, but its attendant harsh, ruthless punishments. Commenting on the brutal and harsh Code of Hammurabi, historian Paul Johnson observes: 'These dreadful laws are notable for the ferocity of their physical punishments, in contrast to the restraint of the Mosaic Code and the enactments of Deuteronomy and Leviticus.'
But Hittite law says, "But now they shall substitute one sheep for the man", in the case of appropriating another man's farmland, which formerly deserved death; here we have humanizing improvements; Copan cleanly ignores the replacement of many executions in Hittite law with fines or offerings.
Copan does not condemn stoning (many places, e.g. Leviticus 20:27), burning (e.g., Leviticus 21:9, "And the daughter of any priest, if she profanes herself by whoring, profanes her father; she shall be burned with fire"), and killing children for the "crime" of being born Canaanite.
Copan also says,
Babylon and Assyria (as well as Sumer) practiced the River Ordeal: when criminal evidence was inconclusive, the accused would be thrown into the river; if he drowned, he was guilty (the river god's judgment), but if he survived, he was innocent and the accuser was guilty of false accusation.
Yes they did, but he ignores Numbers 5:16-22, which I cited above; even the commentator Phillip Budd, a conservative, describes it as a "trial by ordeal." And that is exactly what it is. Israelite law is no different. Should not God transcend these brutal standards?
My understanding is that a concubine was a wife of inferior status.
Yes, and based on that passage in Genesis, it appears to be a wife of inferior status whose children also get no inheritance.
Yes, agreed.