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Matthew 1:1-25

Some of the Messiahs' ancestors were gentiles. One was a prostitute. Guess the only difference is Gods' people believe in Him.
greetings
the gentile came from the root of the fourth son of Noah Japheth-Javan, his descendants today are from Europe
Japheth or Javan was said to be the forefather of the Greeks
 
greetings
the gentile came from the root of the fourth son of Noah Japheth-Javan, his descendants today are from Europe
Japheth or Javan was said to be the forefather of the Greeks
Thank you; I do know where the Gentiles came from, and who is responsible for separating "his people" Matthew 1:21; between the "Tribes" and the "Gentiles".
 
I do know that God did not destroy us for our Sin's; but what I know of that isn't "written in the Bible".
It's written throughout the Bible because to misuse anything God gave us is sin and throughout the Bible, God showed restraint, longsuffering, great patience with sinners before judgment fell on them. No different from what Jesus is doing now. God always has.....and is doing now.
Christ was not "abused" by the Sinner's throughout his life;
Maybe not physically. The Bible says little of the 33? years Jesus walked on earth, but people did want to throw him off a cliff before that.
I believe that physical abuse came after the pharisees demanded the Roman's crucify him.
Maybe all of it did, but thinking hate is like murder.....according to Jesus (Mt.5:21-22)
also think of Matthew 27:46; if Christ's intent was to allow himself to demonstrate anything; why would he cry out; My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? That doesn't sound like a "God" in person trying to show the sinners he meant no harm.
That's because Psalm 22 Is not a psalm of being forsaken.[/b]

Who thought Jesus was being forsaken?

the chief priests mocking him with the scribes and elders said, He saved others; himself he cannot save. If he be the King of Israel, let him now come down from the cross, and we will believe him. He trusted in God; let him deliver him now if he will have him: for he said, I am the Son of God. Mt.27:41-43 KJV

So our dear Savior referred them to what He inspired David to write,

[[To the chief Musicianupon Aijeleth Shahar, A Psalm of David.]] My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? .....He trusted on the LORD that he would deliver him: let him deliver him, seeing he delighted in him. Psa.22:1,8

But Psa.22 is a Psalm of being delivered from the hands of wicked men, a concept "the (so called) scholars of the Torah" knew well. You think our Lord didn't know how Psa.22 ends?
 
Thank you; I do know where the Gentiles came from, and who is responsible for separating "his people" Matthew 1:21; between the "Tribes" and the "Gentiles".
Read Genesis 11: 1-9
tower-of-babel-19-jun-091-325400103.jpg
 
That's because Psalm 22 Is not a psalm of being forsaken.[/b]
I quoted Matthew 27:46 of the NKJV Bible, did a copy and paste; not the Psalm. The Book of Matthew is a testament of a Disciple, not a song.

Your interpretation of the Bible is all yours; whereas mine is mine. I will not try to force you to accept "my truth" of the Bible; most would not believe even half of what I remember and know. But I would like to respectfully request that you not try to twist Scriptures I quote to your own ends; please.
 
Read Genesis 11: 1-9
I have read the Book of Genesis; but why would God separate His people between the Tribes (Jewish) and Gentiles (non-Jewish)? If the Tribes represent the master race; why was Christianity given over Judaism? Why wasn't all the Jew's required to adopt Christianity, by God's Word?
 
I quoted Matthew 27:46 of the NKJV Bible, did a copy and paste; not the Psalm. The Book of Matthew is a testament of a Disciple, not a song.

Your interpretation of the Bible is all yours; whereas mine is mine. I will not try to force you to accept "my truth" of the Bible; most would not believe even half of what I remember and know. But I would like to respectfully request that you not try to twist Scriptures I quote to your own ends; please.
I wouldn't dare twist any scripture.

Jesus said,

Remember the word that I said unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; Jn.15:20

so what did the diciple David come to conclude after he felt forsaken that you seem to think Jesus didn't already know?
 
I have read the Book of Genesis; but why would God separate His people between the Tribes (Jewish) and Gentiles (non-Jewish)? If the Tribes represent the master race; why was Christianity given over Judaism? Why wasn't all the Jew's required to adopt Christianity, by God's Word?
greetings
first, there is no master race, Germany tried that and many before, like an ant hill, their empire falls
The Pharisee Jews did not adopt Christianity because of their position with Rome, and Romans, they knew about Christ
Judaism would not, nor convert to Christianity because they liked to worship false gods and they didn't want to give up their sins they used the law of Moses the Mosaic law to justify their sins.
 
Hi Enlightenedtruth

That opens a different can of worms; why would God want men to alter the "natural body" that He gave them. Does that apply to Matthew 1:21 in saving his people from Sin?

Perhaps I might be able to shed some light on this matter for you.

God made a promise to a man named Abram. Now, before you ask, nobody can really tell you why God chose Abram. I'm guessing that as God, He knew Abram's nature and that he would see through the work that God had for him. But I can't, with any real assurance say that's why God picked Abram.

But God made a promise to him that He was going to raise up a nation to honor and follow Him as a nation of people. Now, for your gentile question, everyone not born of the line of Abraham, through Isaac and then later through the men who became the heads of the 12 tribes of Israel, is a gentile. The sons of Ishmeal were gentiles. Only the sons of the promise that God's word tells us of, became Israel.

Anyway, God made this promise to Abram and acted through him to raise up this nation of people to be His people. As a part of that, He made another covenant with Abram and told him that all males had to be circumcised as a sign of their belonging to Him. It was a sign. Just as the dietary restrictions are a sign.

The dietary laws are signs that kept the nation of Israel separated from the people of the other nations of the world. Still today, devout Jews are loath to eat with gentiles. So, the covenant of circumcision and the condemnation of certain foods for the people of Israel, was, as I understand it how God knew that He could keep His people apart. Even in Egypt we read that the Israelites would not eat with the Egyptians because their foods were often not in keeping with their dietary restrictions that God had placed on them. Same thing happened in Babylon. Of course, we also know that the Egyptians didn't want to eat with the Hebrews because they considered them a very unclean and despicable people. So, these restrictions that God placed on His people under the old covenant were, for the most part, and not including the 10 commandment law, merely to insure that they had a difficult time assimilating into the other nations.

But you might want to up your study game of the Scriptures. God gives Abram the reason for the covenant of circumcision.

This is my covenant with you and your descendants after you, the covenant you are to keep: Every male among you shall be circumcised. You are to undergo circumcision, and it will be the sign of the covenant between me and you.
For the generations to come every male among you who is eight days old must be circumcised, including those born in your household or bought with money from a foreigner—those who are not your offspring. Whether born in your household or bought with your money, they must be circumcised. My covenant in your flesh is to be an everlasting covenant. Any uncircumcised male, who has not been circumcised in the flesh, will be cut off from his people; he has broken my covenant.” Genesis 17:10-14.

Hope that helps.

God bless,
Ted
 
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Hope that helps.
Thank you, next time you could just quote the chapter and verse you refer to; I have the NKJV website bookmarked; and can/will look it up right quick to save you the time and trouble of writing it all out.

I do understand what I read; and remember what I know. As for my OP, the whole point was to understand how other's view "his people" in Christianity. The circumcision was not any part of my OP; that was tossed in there by another member. I am full aware of the covenant God did make with "his people"; but I find it fascinating as to why God would require a "physical token" of faith in a place where most cannot see it (except for parents of a child, or wife when married). But God does in fact see all; so that explains that.

But again I would thank you for your input; understanding the views of different people spread across the world is helpful to me.
 
So I have some questions about Matthew 1:1-25, NKJV. The first book of the New Testament identifies the generations from Abraham, through the Son of David; up until the birth of Christ. It seems to be all about the Tribes of Israel; and their lineage.

1 Where did all the Gentiles come from; those not of the Tribes?

2 In verse 21 it says: And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. If Christ was a Jew, it seems his people would have been the Jews; how do the Gentiles fit into that?

Please, I am not seeking any conflict in my questions. I hold my own truth on such things (we are all God's people); I am just curious as to how others interpret the first book of the New Testament.
Yes, you correctly pointed out that a large part of the Bible is about God's covenant exclusively with Israelites, not to the Gentiles. Some things about Gentiles it does not address since it isn't within the scope of the narrative to talk about it.

The Gentiles came from Adam and Eve who were not themselves practicing Jews nor ethnically Jew. Different ethnicities developed over time while the Judaic religion itself also developed.

According to Acts 1:7,8 Jesus commissioned witnessing to the Gentiles, but with the starting point being with his people the Israelites.

Acts 1:7,8
7Jesus replied, “It is not for you to know times or seasons that the Father has fixed by His own authority. 8But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes upon you, and you will be My witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.”
 
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According to Acts 1:7,8 Jesus commissioned witnessing to the Gentiles, but with the starting point being with his people the Israelites.
Thank you.

In Acts 1:7-8 I would take that to mean his Disciples; not the Israelites specifically. And I still take it that "his people" are all the people, who did descend from Adam and Eve. And if the Israelites had been following God's Law, the covenant; and God's Will, there should not have been a reason for Christ; a Blessed Teacher, to come upon this earth to include "all of his people".
 
Greetings
your funny
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buy the book called Aramaic Bible this will give you a better understanding
Aramaic was the ancient language of that time 990 years old Andam lived
Lol....I know what Aramaic is. I was making a joke because it doesn't matter what language we speak. It matters how we see things and we see things (generally speaking) like good, evil, apathy, etc the same way because the human race came from Adam and Eve. Therefore all humanity is related. 😋

Jesus quoted many Books of the OT which haven't changed doctrinally from any manuscript evidence. Jesus affirmed the scriptures.
 
Thank you.

In Acts 1:7-8 I would take that to mean his Disciples; not the Israelites specifically. And I still take it that "his people" are all the people, who did descend from Adam and Eve. And if the Israelites had been following God's Law, the covenant; and God's Will, there should not have been a reason for Christ; a Blessed Teacher, to come upon this earth to include "all of his people".
yes I agree with that. Jesus' people are everyone, but I just mean ethnically his people are the Israelites. Well said.
 
Hi Enlightenedtruth
but I find it fascinating as to why God would require a "physical token" of faith in a place where most cannot see it (except for parents of a child, or wife when married). But God does in fact see all; so that explains that.
Yeah, that's pretty much what I have understood about the 'why' was it the penis? It's a place of real importance to a man, but isn't generally seen by others. So it becomes a covenant sign that only the Jew and God can see.

God bless,
Ted
 
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