Missing The Mark (Sin) vs. Practice Sinning

[gr8grace]

Do you think John means only one specific sin instead of "sin" in general here?

It does not have to be some overt sin. Overt sins may be involved, but it is a habitual lifestyle of saying NO to Gods particular plan for the believer.

It is not anything that happens overnight. It is a constant habitual life of saying NO to Gods plan for ones life. IMO we would be shocked if it was revealed to us who are actually living this "sin"

We have a tendency to focus on the nasty overt sins that we can see. And we cannot "see" someone who is living a nice moral lifestyle, but is saying NO to Gods plan for their life.
The believers salvation is never in question though. Gods promise saves us, never the believers behavior. I know you know that one.

What do you think "mortal" or "deadly" means if it doesn't mean it will kill, or in some way negatively effect, salvation?

There is nothing that a creature can do to jeopardize his/her salvation. We can't save ourselves and we can't unsave ourselves.

The sin in focus is "I will" we can fill in the blank with human good(evil) or sins.

The death is physical death, the flesh. 1 Cor 5:5

Hummm...So, the word "sin" in 1Jn. means "one specific sin"? This one sin is pride? And this one sin actually puts a person to physical death?

If this were so, none of us would be alive. ;)

All kidding aside, I don't know where Scripture teaches that one sin, (even the most grievous one, Pride) leads to physical death. 1Cor. 5:5 doesn't, as Paul wants this person "delivered" over to Satan for the sin of "living with his father's wife". Certainly this sin is not the one specific sin John is talking about in his letter, is it?

No, I think John means a spiritual "death" or "mortality" here.

Yeah this little guy has it figured out by now that he is not going to convince you. but I believe the truth is on the posts that I wrote. The readers get to make up their minds.

If we , as creatures could figure out the Sin of pride or "I will" , We would all be more spiritually mature. We are ALL sin (overt sins)mature.

 

[dadof10]

The word used here (hamartia) is simply "sin", singular, not A sin. I looked it up in Thayers and it's translated 172 times as "sin" or "sins". Here are some other verses with the word "hamartia" (#266) used.

I see what you are saying and agree. Frankly, I should have seen this. Thanks

So, I really don't know if there is some small qualifying dot or something that makes Thayer's translate the word "a sin" ONLY in 1Jn. 5 or it's INTERPRETATION as opposed to translation. FWIW...

"a sin" is the interpretation in KJV, haven't really looked in others. I didn't look in Thayer for it, it was in a Greek interlinear. Just to clarify.

So just by grammar we can't tell whether this verse is saying one sin or more than one. Unless I'm missing something.

OK. I had time and looked at EVERY single instance of the word "hamartia", and ONLY in 1John is there the "A" attached to "sin". This really seems suspicious to me. I know all interlinears and lexicons are subject to some bias, but this is really blatant. It's obvious that John meant the broad view of "sin', as he does elsewhere and the good people at Thayer's and GK are interpreting instead of translating.