Walpole
Member
Mat 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
Mat 1:19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
Mat 1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
Mat 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Mat 1:22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,
Mat 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
Mat 1:24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
Matthew 1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
After the birth of Jesus Mary and Joseph had normal marital relations meaning Mary was no longer a virgin. I'm not going to get into the half brothers and sisters of Jesus as it is to involved and needs to be another thread and I have already given scriptures stating Mary and Joseph had other children.
I will give you to study Matthew 13:55-56, Mark 3:31-32; 6:3, Acts 1:13 and Galatians 1:19.
Also there are four James found in the Bible that you might want to look up.
Firstborn was a title given AT BIRTH, not after subsequent maternities. (See Exodus 13:1-2)
Additionally, the quotations from the beginning of St. Matthew's gospel which you quoted concern the events up until the Nativity. His narrative is not implying anything about Joseph and Mary's alleged sexual activity after the Nativity. St. Matthew would have written 'until after' if he had wanted to do so, to avoid the obvious ambiguity. Matthew 1:25 is about Jesus' identity as the Messiah, not Mary's sex life.
As for "brothers" of the Lord, that has been addressed in previous posts. Please go back and read them.
In Jewish antiquity, "brother" had a much wider meaning than we moderns use. There is NO scripture which identifies another as a son (or daughter) of Mary. Thus, any claim that Jesus had uterine siblings is one completely foreign to Scripture and the regula fidei of Christianity.