handy
Member
Imagican said:That will do handy. John 17:8 is as good as any.
MEC
Very good, I'll work on a response.
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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Imagican said:That will do handy. John 17:8 is as good as any.
MEC
Imagican said:That will do handy. John 17:8 is as good as any.
MEC
Imagican said:Ok handy, (Dora),
Oh, and this question is NOT only open to handy, ANYONE, please feel 'free' to 'step right up' and offer an answer. PLEASE.
handy said:Mutz, you said in your last post that you had a response "to the Scripture that (I) posted". I had assumed you would give it and yet now you are going back to John 1. Frankly, we need to deal with John 1 in the light that Hebrews 1 shows. The two passages are both concerning the nature of the Son and should be studied together. This is not cobbling doctrine by joining Scriptures that have no bearing upon each other. This is examing the word by the light of the word. When one is studying a particular subject, in this case the nature of the Son, one should never just read one part of one chapter of one book and that's it. One should always look up everything the Scriptures has to say regarding the subject. Scripture never contradicts itself. Therefore, when John makes the claim that the Word, who was God, became flesh and dwelt among us, we can and should wonder, "Is John saying that Jesus is God?" So, we can and should look to see if the Scriptures refer to the Son as God in other places and we find that it surely does, especially in Hebrews 1. And we see in Hebrews 1, the writer referring to an Old Testament source which also points to God calling the Son God.
So, Mutz, I really want to see your thoughts on Hebrews 1:8 which states emphatically and without any veiling,
"But of the Son, He (God) says, "Thou throne, O God, is forever and ever."
and sure, I'll add verse 9 here as well which says:
"Thou hast loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; therefore God, Thy God, hath anointed Thee."
Who was anointed? The Son, of whom God said, "Thou throne, O God, is forever and ever."
Who called the Son God? God did.
Who anointed Him? God.
God anointed God.
Why are we going back to what we've already discussed without dealing with this text?
For the record, the post that I posted before this one, the one addressed to MEC, contains exactly what I believe regarding the Word, as God's expression to us.
but the indication from The Word is that the apostles were for a 'time' and for a 'purpose'. And that time is past and the purpose fulfilled.
A-Christian said:but the indication from The Word is that the apostles were for a 'time' and for a 'purpose'. And that time is past and the purpose fulfilled.
MEC, show me where the WORD states this, I must have missed it.
Peace
Imagican said:I am rather pressed for time right now and don't have time to do an extensive study of this matter. I am hoping that some of you may be able to help.
The question is concerning The Word. I am looking for direct scriptural reference to Christ BEING The Word. If anyone can direct me to said scripture I would be greatly appreciative.
Like I said, I am able to read but don't have the time, right now, to do an adequate study.
Thanks,
MEC
I most certainly see the difference that you indicate. But I can take you BACK to the first chapter where the LORD part is non-existant. Even in the beginning of the second chapter it ends with reference to GOD and no; Lord God.
I think that it's NEAT that there is the ability to 'read into' the Word what we "BELIEVE". But I don't know if this is the case here.
There is little doubt that Christ was instrumental in 'creation'. I just don't know if your offering actually depicts what you choose to 'believe' that it does. For 'let US' is inference enough to indicate that there was a 'plurality', (at LEAST), involved in the 'Creation'.
So, it is YOUR contention that it was NOT God the Father that walked in the garden, but God the Son?
Christ, as in Savior, Messiah, is not a created being. Jesus, as man, is a created being. :-? You and I are created. He is Divine; we are not.When and where and why I have little understanding of. But the Word DOES indicate that there was a 'time' when The Son was NOT. I know. If one IGNORES the scripture that indicates this and simply focuses on that which states such things as 'always' and 'all things', and 'alpha and omega', and 'I am', it can be 'seem' as if Christ has ALWAYS been. But there ARE statements and even words offered by Christ Himself that offer PLAIN indication that He has NOT 'always been'. Even the name SON and 'only begotten' offer the indication that Christ was indeed a 'created being'. It takes a pretty healthy imagination to come up with answers to these statements in order to attempt to negate them.
golfjack said:The problem with many Christians is they think way to much, which causes confusion. The Bible says that God is not the author of Confusion. Let's have more faith then trying to be so darned intellectual.