I quoted this from post 319. Perhaps you didn't think I read it's duplicate copy from you previous post 304?
But thank you for affirming that my position in this argument is correct. Here, I will post it for you a third time, just to make sure you get a chance to read it, you know.. just in case you missed it the other two times.
In
Genesis 6, the term "sons of god" is used. In
Job 1, the same term "sons of god" is used.
Because "sons of God" is accepted as being angels in
Job 1, then this term must be interpreted as angels in
Genesis 6.
This is where your argument hinges
and without this link, your reasoning fails.
Now then, I have asked you many questions on the reasoning that surrounds your assertion. Many of them which remained unanswered. I also tried to answer your questions.
Do you have any questions on my reasoning of "sons of nobles".. Please be specific.