Thanks again Stove mate. I'm curious as to why you suggest the term "sons of God " in Job and Gen 6 cannot be linked considering what you've correctly said about plausible redaction and cultural significance. Do you agree Moses penned both Job and Genesis and, culturally, he would have similar insights into both ?.
Hi again Aqua,
Yes, I do believe that Moses penned both Job and the Torah (Genesis, Exodus, Numbers, Leviticus and Deuteronomy). From a textual perspective, you can see the continuity contained within the Torah as the Torah was written by a Jew for Jews, yet Job does not hold a textual continuity with Torah on many levels. I have this book on Job
http://www.amazon.com/Iyov-Job-Translation-Commentary-Anthologized/dp/0899060153 which I will quote from page 2, commentary on verse 1, chapter 1 which may shed some light on this conundrum.
Would we not have expected a parable, thought out by Moses, to be constructed quite differently? There is one thought which might eliminate much of this difficulty. Bava Basra 15b teaches that the main thrust of the prophecy of Iyov and that to his friends was directed to the gentile nation. [... the main portions of the prophecies of (the other prophets) was directed to Israel. but hte main portions of the prophecy (of Iyov and his friends) was directed to the nations of the world.] the commentators are silent on this issue an ddo not explain why the main portions of this book, which is part of (jewish letters), the holy writ is not addressed to Israel.
Perhaps, then, we are to conclude that the lessons of the book are indeed directed more t0 the nations than they are to Israel. Israel has it's Torah an dcan learn the truth concerning God's providences from it's teachings. Not so, the nations of this world. They must find their way to God along the torturous highways and byways by which Iyov eventually learned the truth. The Torah which Moses gave to Israel was the Torah which had been accepted with total unquestioning subjugation to God's will. A people with such a Torah may safely bypass Iyov's agonized searchings.
The nations, on the other hand, wanted to know, What does the Torah contain, what does it demand of us? For them, the book of Iyov is needed. It teaches that God can be found through search and struggle.
If this is indeed so, then we can well understand why, even if Moses wrote the book, and even if it is a parable, he chose to create the background and identity of the protagonists in non-Jewish, non-Torah context. It is an abience which is most suited to the nations of the world to whome, as Bava Basra teaches, it is mainly directed.
As I stated earlier, the Hebrew language is very robust. They don't think like us. We see objects (door), they see events (swinging, for the purpose of a door is to swing). Davar (word) can mean a thing, but in Jewish thought, it is seen more as an event that is not the thing, but rather comes from a thing.
What I see in this thread are gentiles (myself incuded) struggling with a language we don't understand. Is it possible that Moses used this term "sons of God" in both places knowing that gentiles would misunderstand it? Remember what God said to Moses before Moses went in front of Pharaoh? Even God said that Moses would "be like a God" to Pharaoh. You see, Moses was no God, but I don't think you could have convinced Pharaoh of that. And so it is that many believe that sons of God are to be taken in Genesis 6 as angels when Rashi and Ramban, and basic hassidic thought interprets the passage as sons of nobles.
http://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/8171#showrashi=true
The Nephilim were on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of the nobles would come to the daughters of man, and they would bear for them; they are the mighty men, who were of old, the men of renown
The premise that the Gen 6 sons of God are angels isn't confined to that passage alone and is linked, as you know, to other scriptures concerning angels who sinned or left their proper estate. I'm not simply grabbing the term sons of God and suggesting this equates to angels procreating with women but have formed an argument based upon logical conclusions.
I believe the NT passage (1 Peter I believe) is linking the angels who smote Sodom. This is why in Jacob's dream, he sees angels accending before descending. We know why Sodom was destroyed from Ezekiel 16 and it is also why God called a great flood in the days of Noah. And so we see that Moses wasn't able to enter the promise land because he disobeyed God and hit a rock with his staff, and took credit for the water which came out. And we see the angels who smote Sodom also take credit for it's destruction, and they too paid the price for their disobedience.
Is your opposition to the Nephilim being the offspring of angels and women based solely on that we can't be sure of the meaning of sons of God ? I'd like to see your exegesis and "good redaction" showing this ta.
No offense Stove but could you keep your reply based upon the subject matter. Thanks Brother.
I will be honest with you. I had no intention of posting in this thread until a past member who we have debated this issue sent me a PM contacted me and drug me into this mess. Honestly, I don't care what you or others believe about the Nephilim. What drug me into this conversation were people who are still in opposition to the sons of God as being "nobles" that take this teaching to the next logical conclusion. As such, they reason that the Nephilim are still roaming the earth. They link Nephilim with Goliath and that Goliath had an extra digit, and was a giant, they use this to descriminate, or put into question anyone they see today, that is large in stature. They question if this large person is human, or if they are the offspring of angels and thus, not human and are to be shunned, feared and frowned upon.