Squeakybro said:you said
So why is Jesus referred to as the "King of kings and Lord of lords?"
I said
Look at the spelling. In the old testament when the Father carried both titles of God and LORD. The Father carried "LORD" in the new testament when the Father turned over the title to Jesus it is "Lord" and Jesus is "Lord" over lords. Cant you see how it works. When it uses "lords" its talking about people because it uses the little "l" when it talks about Jesus it uses the "Lord" when it talks about God it uses "LORD". Wake up.
Sure, but I've proven that in the NT "Lord" is used of both God and Jesus, which you haven't refuted. Not only that, the Septuagint uses the Greek word kurios for "LORD," which is what the NT uses for "Lord" whether it is speaking of the Father or of Jesus.
So, I'll ask again: If only Jesus is Lord, how come both he and the Father are referred to as the "King of kings and Lord of lords?"
I am awake, thanks.