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Francisdesales


I did a lot of research about 6 years ago on this subject while at freerepublic.com. I am now posting that research here. It is interesting how the Fathers had no problems with citing these "apocrypha" as Scriptures...

OT Deuterocanonicals explicitly accepted as Scripture

Epistle of Barnabas; Wisdom
Clement of Rome; Wisdom
Didache; Sirach
Polycarp; Tobit
etc.

Is any of this information quoted and recorded on the internet?

JamesG
 
JamesG said:
francisdesales said:
Francisdesales

I did a lot of research about 6 years ago on this subject while at freerepublic.com. I am now posting that research here. It is interesting how the Fathers had no problems with citing these "apocrypha" as Scriptures...

OT Deuterocanonicals explicitly accepted as Scripture

Epistle of Barnabas; Wisdom
Clement of Rome; Wisdom
Didache; Sirach
Polycarp; Tobit
etc.

Is any of this information quoted and recorded on the internet?

JamesG

I don't know, I went to the Fathers myself and found the citations, I didn't just copy and paste and take credit for some else's work... I posted this exact same thing at freerepublic.com a long time ago, but other than that, I don't know, google it...

The primary sources are on the internet. You would have to find a source that backwards cited the work, there are a number that do.

Here is a cite that lists allusions between the NT and the Deuterocanonicals. Often, they are weak associations, other times, unmistakeable...

http://www.cin.org/users/james/files/deutero3.htm#dt order

Here is an example of a Father citing a deutero canonical work as Scriptures... This one hits to the heart of Luther, since the greatest Bible commenator of ancient times and the writer of the Hexapla has no problem citing 2 Macc as Scriptures...!

But that we may believe on the authority of holy Scripture that such is the case, hear how in the book of Maccabees, where the mother of seven martyrs exhorts her son to endure torture, this truth is confirmed; for she says, ' ask of thee, my son, to look at the heaven and the earth, and at all things which are in them, and beholding these, to know that God made all these things when they did not exist.' [2 Maccabees 7:28]" Origen, Fundamental Principles, 2:2 (A.D. 230),in ANF, IV:270

or, when he cites a proto and deutero to make a point, considering they are equal...

And as a general principle observe the expression "behind"; because it is a good thing when any one goes behind the Lord God and is behind the Christ; but it is the opposite when any one casts the words of God behind him, or when he transgresses the commandment which says "Do not walk behind thy lusts." (Sirach 18:30) And Elijah also in the third Book of Kings, says to the people "How long halt ye on both your knees? If God is the Lord, go behind Him, but if Baal is the Lord, go behind him." (1 Kings 18:21) Origen, Commentary on Matthew 23 Origen, 22, in ANF, IX:463 AD 254

Regards
 
dadof10 said:
shad said:
dadof10 said:
Anyway, it seems that M-Paul is pretty much done here. Too bad, it was getting really interesting.

Dad,

You and Francis belittle and ridicule posters who don't agree with you. Christians who are mature will not continue on with mockers because it is not a good practice as Jesus' followers.

By the tone of his last post, he seemed to be winding down. How is pointing this out "belittling"? Please point to where I "belittled" M-Paul. I'll give you a lesson on how you point something out here on these boards, because you seem to be having a hard time with this simple concept.

First, you make the accusation, for example:

You, Shad are attacking me personally.

Then you show them their words to prove it to them and everyone else.

Christians who are mature will not continue on with mockers because it is not a good practice as Jesus' followers.

Just consider this a service, you don't owe me anything. You're welcome...

Alright gentlmen, need I mention our TOS?
Let's get back to a healthy discussion as the above type of dialog brings no value to the conversation.

A little less posturing would be helpful.
 
Francis,

You answers are nothing but a run around. And, you still try to attribute to me verses you brought up as a basis of my position, to call me desperate -- that is desperation on your part.

I just looked at the Zondervan Encyclopedia on "Sanhedren." Do you think these scholars are ignorant and don't know anything? They note the Sanhedrin was the highest authority in Palestine, deciding all religious affairs and even civil matters. It had members from the Pharisees, Sadducees, and included priests, nobility. By Rabbinic tradition its authority goes back to Numbers 11:16 at the time of Moses. This view is consistent with Jewish scholars, or do you hold they are ignorant too??

Thus, no book was getting into the canon without Sanhedren approval. After the destruction of the temple, the Sanhedrin was moved to Jamnia, although then, it was of diminished authority -- the temple was gone, and Romans ruled the state entirely. The Jamnia decision did not establish the canon in 90 A.D., but it decided what was already established previously as canon should remain as the official books of the Bible. This decision has never changed. Thus, lexicographically, Christ's reference to OT writings are those of the Hebrew Bible even as it now exists. Thus, Jesus Christ himself established the canon of the OT.

To hold that the Apocrypha should be included in the NT reference is made ridiculous also by the fact, that the Hebrew texts do not exist -- no Jews thought it was important enough to preserve them. Further, the Apocrypha itself by internal evidence notes the cessation of prophecy. And by Jewish tradition in Alexandria, these books were considered inspired due to 70 translators coming up with 70 identical translations in separate rooms -- it became to be considered inspired by mythological legend, but that was good enough for the RCC. However, this criterion is not a principle of canonicity found in Scripture. Further, the the significance of the document the RCC has on the LXX is highly questionable on what it represents -- as we do not know what really was involved in the translation, what Hebrew texts were involved, how many translations were made, or the number of revisions. And denying Josephus confirms the canon from prior centuries is an argument based on refusing to recognize his use of idiom from his own time.

Francis, what you are doing is called a run around. You use straw man arguments -- and you constantly degrade -- you refute one piece of evidence, and then say the whole argument is refuted, and therefore it is ignorant -- you deny the true significance of facts, calling a belief in them ignorant, while you exaggerate facts you like, which is supposed to be an example of being well informed. Now, who is it that is using ignorant tactics? However, I actually did read your last post quickly (which you normally reference to justify your straw mans), as you really have taken the conversation to an extremely immature level.
 
M-Paul said:
Francis,

You answers are nothing but a run around. And, you still try to attribute to me verses you brought up as a basis of my position, to call me desperate -- that is desperation on your part.

I made a nice list of 5 questions for you. Twice. The most recent is in red. You have not answered them. And you have the gall to tell me I am running around? It is quite obvious who is "desperate" and "running around" here. I provide citations, you provide whining and accusations.

M-Paul said:
I just looked at the Zondervan Encyclopedia on "Sanhedren." Do you think these scholars are ignorant and don't know anything?

Oh, I'm sure they know something, but I wouldn't rely on them too much more than a wikipedia article, just as you wouldn't rely too much on a Catholic Encyclopedia article. Scholarship there is sketchy and biased, but for now, I'll accept them as having some basic knowledge.

M-Paul said:
They note the Sanhedrin was the highest authority in Palestine, deciding all religious affairs and even civil matters. It had members from the Pharisees, Sadducees, and included priests, nobility. By Rabbinic tradition its authority goes back to Numbers 11:16 at the time of Moses. This view is consistent with Jewish scholars, or do you hold they are ignorant too??

No, although I presume you are speaking of the GRAND Sanhedrin in this and future discussions... Correct me if I am wrong, as every town had a "Sanhedrin".

M-Paul said:
Thus, no book was getting into the canon without Sanhedren approval.

Now, could you cite me where Zondervan ACTUALLY SAYS THAT??? Or is that YOUR PRESUMPTION based upon a lack of knowledge of ancient Judaism again?

You are making a big conclusion based on absolutely no evidence. You yourself admit that the Sanhedrin consists of Pharisees and mostly Sadducees. Well done. Now, did this group agree on theological doctrines? Did the various schools agree on the canon? The Bible clearly tells us that they did not. Both Jesus and Paul used this disagreement between these two groups to set them apart from each other. We can see that this Sanhedrin had a very limited power to secure such declarations that you seem to think that they had done.

THERE WAS NO "COUNCIL", as in ancient Christianity. The Sanhedrin did NOT force one theological doctrine over the other. Thus, ALL of Judaism was not required to believe in resurrection after death. The Sadducees did not, and COULD NOT force this upon the Pharisees or the people of the Land. Same with their idea on angels. Same with the extent of the canon. A knowledgeable person who has read the Gospels and Acts will readily see that there was no such "overruling counciliar power", like an infallible ecumenical Catholic Council, such as at Nicea. Thus, your entire point fails - that a canon was actually SET! The fact that the Sadducees did NOT AGREE with the Pharisees makes it clear that Judaism was NOT monolithic. And we have not even included the canon of the Essenes at Qumran.

M-Paul said:
After the destruction of the temple, the Sanhedrin was moved to Jamnia, although then, it was of diminished authority

No, it was RECONSTITUTED. You are again mistaken and trying to say something that is incorrect to push your agenda. ONLY PHARISEES were part of this new and very truncated "authority". ALL PHARISEES. Thus, obviously, there was no input from MAJORITY JUDAISM. Pharisees were a small minority during the time of Christ. Because of the war with Rome and their relative independence on the Temple (unlike the Sadducees who utterly depended upon it and kept it as custodians), relying more on synagogues, they were able to survive and became virtually the SOLE VOICE of Judaism. Thus, when we read Josephus, or what took place at Jamnia, we see only one voice of Judaism from Christ's time. We don't see a monolithic JEWISH CANON that Jamnia merely "waved through". It represented only ONE PART of Judaism, which would become rabbinical Judaism.

M-Paul said:
the temple was gone, and Romans ruled the state entirely. The Jamnia decision did not establish the canon in 90 A.D., but it decided what was already established previously as canon should remain as the official books of the Bible.

Wrong answer, see above. Jamnia decided very little in the way of "canon". Justin the Martyr, writing over 50 years AFTER Jamnia, admits that the JEWISH use of Qoheleth, Canticles, and Esther continue to be objects of dispute. He personally does not cite from these books. Lamentations continued to be a problem with the Pharisee community. Remember, we are dealing with a multiple-branched canon. A variety of branches, Sadducees, Pharisee, Essene, Gnostic Jews; all had their own branches. Thus, your error is forgeting about these branches, presuming that Judaism was only ONE branch, before and after the fall of Jerusalem. This leads you to believe that Judaism at the time of Christ was the same as 90 AD on the question of the canon. That is a huge mistake. The only thing 'set' at Jamnia was to verify MOST of the PHARISEE canon (not inspired works), not JEWISH canon.

M-Paul said:
This decision has never changed. Thus, lexicographically, Christ's reference to OT writings are those of the Hebrew Bible even as it now exists. Thus, Jesus Christ himself established the canon of the OT.

Where does Christ tell us exactly what the Writings are? Thus, you cannot say this. In other works, like Esdras 4, the "WRITINGS" refer to 70 other books considered inspired by God. They cite the 24 + the 70, the 70 being partially what was called the Writings MUCH later, and SOME being Jewish Apocrypha or LXX writings. Hebrew rescissions verify this. I have already cited this above, but I fear you are not reading what I write. Very well, I am sure that some are reading and learning, even if you are not..

Yet again, you refuse to address my concern I brought up so long ago. By being anachronistic, you apply a term "Writings" to Jesus as if HE had in mind ONLY the Writings list that came down 200 years later!!! Ridiculous... The "other writings" refers to ALL the inspired works not yet in the Torah or the Prophets, to include Sirach and Wisdom and Macabbees, which the Gospel writers were aware of and allude to.

M-Paul said:
To hold that the Apocrypha should be included in the NT reference is made ridiculous also by the fact, that the Hebrew texts do not exist -- no Jews thought it was important enough to preserve them.

What sort of foolish statement is this??? You are clueless on the contents of the the Dead Sea Scrolls. You are clueless on the fact that the LXX existed in Palestine. Hebrew rescissions also prove otherwise!

In addition, we don't even have very much of the PROTOCANONICAL works. YOUR Bible is based upon the Masoretic text, not the original Hebrew...!!!

Paul, I would seriously do some reading outside of Protestant apologetics. There is a lot of good books on the subject, books that are not sect-biased (written by a Catholic or Protestant with an agenda). Clearly, you read only Protestant books and have no clue on recent (last 50 years) scholarship.

M-Paul said:
Further, the Apocrypha itself by internal evidence notes the cessation of prophecy.

A book does not have to be "prophetic" to be considered inspired by God. And secondly, this eliminates the New Testament. Typical "throw the baby out with the bathwater" mentality on the subject from Protestant apologists who don't care about logic or truth.

M-Paul said:
And by Jewish tradition in Alexandria, these books were considered inspired due to 70 translators coming up with 70 identical translations in separate rooms -- it became to be considered inspired by mythological legend, but that was good enough for the RCC.

Another silly lack of logic. The idea about this MIGHT be legend came about in the 19th century. To the men and women of Palestine in the first century, it was GOOD ENOUGH for the APOSTLES! THEY (men you call prophets) cite it 3:1 over the Hebrew versions of Scriptures. As usual, in your effort to attack Catholics, you must resort to attacking the apostles, as well.

M-Paul said:
However, this criterion is not a principle of canonicity found in Scripture. Further, the the significance of the document the RCC has on the LXX is highly questionable on what it represents -- as we do not know what really was involved in the translation, what Hebrew texts were involved, how many translations were made, or the number of revisions. And denying Josephus confirms the canon from prior centuries is an argument based on refusing to recognize his use of idiom from his own time.

Continue, explain what you mean by "idiom"...?!

Furthermore, I have already cited one of a number of scholars who disagree with Josephus' CLAIM of a pre-existent canon. First, it ignores the rest of Judaism, as I relate above. Second, it ignores the Hebrew texts that we DO have, which include what YOU would call "apocrypha".

Here is an interesting theory, that makes much more sense and is IN CONTEXT to what he actually says. It is found in "Canon Debate", and the essay is entitled "Josephus and his 22 book Canon", by Professor Steve Mason". The POINT Josephus is trying to make is NOT religion or canon, but on the reliability and stability of the historians of Judaism. If you read the context of the citation taken from "Against Apion", (1.37-43), Josephus is arguing AGAINST the unstable and unreliable Greek historians. He denies that Greek sources should not be considered the final authority. He notes the Greek competitiveness of rhetoric among their historians. THEN, Josephus notes that there is a stability of JEWISH HISTORIANS, who are ALSO inspired by God.

Thus, the point of Josephus apparent "canon" statement is a polemic against Greek historians, NOT to set down in stone all of the books INSPIRED BY GOD. (There IS a difference between "inspired work" and "canon", which we can delve into later).


M-Paul said:
Francis, what you are doing is called a run around.
[/quote]

Rant ignored...

I only address attempts to prove me wrong, or new information that is worthwhile to reconsider your point. You are just wasting your time, otherwise. As of now, the five questions still remain unanswered, several are STILL not addressed...

I think the unbiased reader will see quite clearly what is happening here...
 
.
Francisdesales

““Where does Christ tell us exactly what the Writings are?â€â€

That is a good question? If Christ didn’t tell us exactly what the writings are, why didn’t he? He was God in the flesh, was he not? He had the authority to do so. And should have considering the divisions and Tradition of men that was prevelant in the Judaism of that time. It is claimed that he fulfilled those writings. How do we know what writings he actually fulfilled? The New Testament quotations are not really complete in that very little of the Old Testament is actually quoted. The most that is given is a generalization: the Law, the Psalms, and the writings. The majority of the time, the New Testament writers quoted the Septuagint, an Old Testament translation that includes the Deuterocanical writings. And the copies that we have today of that translation includes some extra writings related to the New Testament as well. That has been of interest to me.

Do you know about the Oriental Eastern Church in Africa, Ethiopian I believe, that has more books in their canon than even the Catholics, Old Testament and New Testament? The authority of that canon is a little unstable, but interesting nevertheless, don’t you think?

BTW, some of the things that M-Paul is saying sounds like Ruckmanism. Like what he said about the Septuagint. If so, you are dealing with a not so Protestant Protestant. They believe that the Septuagint was created after the New Testament, not before. Even the Jews disagree with this, in spite of pretty much leaving that translation in the hands of the Christians. Actual Protestant apologetics is different than some of the things that he is saying. You are generalizing again when you say, “Clearly, you read only Protestant books and have no clue on recent (last 50 years) scholarship.†You know the diversity within Protestantism and what the mainstream and Evangelical Protestants believe by this time. Generalization is beneath your ability and your dignity as an apologist of the Catholic Church.

I have read much of the Deuterocanical books and find nothing in them that is any more offensive than that which is in the rest of the Old Testament. Most Protestants of my acquaintance disagree with me on that also. It happens to be one of the few things that I agree with the Catholics about, that is, it is a secondary Canon in regard to the Old Testament. And that the only reason that the Jews reject it is because it is associated with the Christians. That is not through the inner witness, just through my own mind. The inner witness has revealed nothing on the matter as yet. The inner witness operates on its own timing, not mine. I am sorry about how you regard me, but it is a total misunderstanding. A prejudicial minunderstanding that I doubt you will ever be able to rectify, apart from the grace of God.

Nevertheless, thank you for the Biblical references relating to the Deuterocanonicals. I am looking through them, and I am finding them of great interest.

It is unfortunate your research on what the later writers quoted is not more complete, in regard to the actual quotations of the references. It would have been helpful. I haven’t the time to do more than to check to be sure some of your quotes are accurate. I don’t have the time to redo the research. So what you said in that regard is really just hearsay apart from the actual quotations. If you do find some of the actual quotations, perhaps you can post them. I don’t know that the Protestants would give a care, but it would be of interest to me, if that means anything to you at this point.

JamesG
 
JamesG said:
Francisdesales said:
““Where does Christ tell us exactly what the Writings are?â€â€

That is a good question? If Christ didn’t tell us exactly what the writings are, why didn’t he? He was God in the flesh, was he not? He had the authority to do so. And should have considering the divisions and Tradition of men that was prevelant in the Judaism of that time.

Just as God did not reveal to "Moses" the scientific dynamics of how the world was formed, or that there was an entire Western Hemisphere, God did not reveal the exact contents of Scriptures in ANY case DIRECTLY in a manner that circumvents His community. Certainly not the contents of what would only LATER be called "The Writings". Jesus is not even proclaiming a formal name for them, but just saying "the other writings that we find inspired", like Sirach, which other writings call "the 70 others".

Whether Jews or Christians, it always relies on men making the determination of what is from God, based upon the prophetic and inspired word of the author AND AND AND the recognition of the audience that "yes, this is from God"...

JamesG said:
Do you know about the Oriental Eastern Church in Africa, Ethiopian I believe, that has more books in their canon than even the Catholics, Old Testament and New Testament? The authority of that canon is a little unstable, but interesting nevertheless, don’t you think?

Yes, but my interlocutor here does not even accept that the Essene community at Qumran had more books, so what hope do I have of waking him up to the Jewish Ethiopian canon and the repercussions? It is just another example of his mistake. He thinks that Judaism = Pharisees during the time of Christ. Thus, their "canon", which didn't even exist at that point, was the only Jewish word on what was sacred writings, according to him. It is an ignorant proposition that ignores history just for the sake of propping up Protestant apologetics on the pedestal of fallacy. So far, I have spoken NOTHING about Catholic authority or other such Catholic notions. I have cited and refered to recent scholarship on the matter without citing any "Catholic particulars".

JamesG said:
BTW, some of the things that M-Paul is saying sounds like Ruckmanism. Like what he said about the Septuagint. If so, you are dealing with a not so Protestant Protestant. They believe that the Septuagint was created after the New Testament, not before.

I don't know what "Ruckmanism" is, but as you describe it, I would disagree, he appears to accept that the LXX was written and considered inspired before the NT was written. Maybe you could point out where he implies this?

JamesG said:
Even the Jews disagree with this, in spite of pretty much leaving that translation in the hands of the Christians. Actual Protestant apologetics is different than some of the things that he is saying. You are generalizing again when you say, “Clearly, you read only Protestant books and have no clue on recent (last 50 years) scholarship.†You know the diversity within Protestantism and what the mainstream and Evangelical Protestants believe by this time. Generalization is beneath your ability and your dignity as an apologist of the Catholic Church.

I am not sure if that is a compliment or not, but so far, I have not even brought the "heavy hammer of Catholic apologetics" to bear on this subject. I don't need it. His arguments will NEVER succeed, since they are inconsistently applied. Case in point, to make it simple, he says that prophetic word is done with the OT. What happens to the NT, then? You can't have it both ways, but he desires to...

I have a lot of experience arguing the canon, and I find the same tired arguments based upon old scholarship and a lack of common sense logic. While you may think I am generalizing, which may be true, I have yet to hear a reasonable response to even that one "case in point" I speak of. It is utterly ignored by every one of my interlocutors... Thus, I am left to believe that they are not concerned with bringing a reasonable paradigm to the table, just an excuse to keep their canon without the Church.

As if the Word of God is self-authenticating. No one will be able to show that.

JamesG said:
I have read much of the Deuterocanical books and find nothing in them that is any more offensive than that which is in the rest of the Old Testament. Most Protestants of my acquaintance disagree with me on that also.

Because they have been taught to disagree with it. Not because they individually find a valid reason.
They see a book called "The Holy Bible" and automatically presume it is holy, not realizing WHO is claiming it to be Holy in the first place...!

Of course, this is only the people who are arguing with me on this, not all Protestant feel this way. Luther did not.

JamesG said:
It happens to be one of the few things that I agree with the Catholics about, that is, it is a secondary Canon in regard to the Old Testament. And that the only reason that the Jews reject it is because it is associated with the Christians. That is not through the inner witness, just through my own mind. The inner witness has revealed nothing on the matter as yet. The inner witness operates on its own timing, not mine. I am sorry about how you regard me, but it is a total misunderstanding. A prejudicial minunderstanding that I doubt you will ever be able to rectify, apart from the grace of God.

Perhaps someday, we can revisit that. I agree with much of what you say, but I have a caveat for this inner voice, and that it must also conform to the community's voice that they hear, as well. Otherwise, how do we know if we are hearing the inner voice of God? I think that the Church validates our inner voice, for the greater part. Schism is the natural result from listening only to that "voice".

JamesG said:
Nevertheless, thank you for the Biblical references relating to the Deuterocanonicals. I am looking through them, and I am finding them of great interest.

I am glad you find them useful.

JamesG said:
It is unfortunate your research on what the later writers quoted is not more complete, in regard to the actual quotations of the references. It would have been helpful. I haven’t the time to do more than to check to be sure some of your quotes are accurate. I don’t have the time to redo the research. So what you said in that regard is really just hearsay apart from the actual quotations. If you do find some of the actual quotations, perhaps you can post them. I don’t know that the Protestants would give a care, but it would be of interest to me, if that means anything to you at this point.

Like I said, one takes the primary source that includes the Scripture citings. The Early Church Fathers has an index that you can find much of this at. It cites every time they cite a work. To include the Deuterocanonicals. You then find it and see the context. I certainly could not post them all here, and my research at that level I did not record every single instance. My purpose at the time was to show that the Church Fathers did by and large accept these NT Dueterocanonicals, even people like Jerome and Origen (who more educated Protestants unknowingly think argue against their inclusion). As such, I did not record the context of every author, but I have some of them still in my old files. If you doubt me, James, you can do the homework, as well. Some of the writings I cite are not overly long.

Regards
 
M-Paul said:
Thus, lexicographically, Christ's reference to OT writings are those of the Hebrew Bible even as it now exists. Thus, Jesus Christ himself established the canon of the OT.

As has been pointed out, most recently by James G, the Septuagint was quoted by the writers of the NT far more than the Hebrew text was. Using your logic, that fact alone would prove that the NT and it's inspired writers established the canon of the OT, and that it's the LXX, not the Hebrew text.

From 2Pt. 3:16 we can see that the canon was not closed.

So also our beloved brother Paul wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, 16 speaking of this as he does in all his letters. There are some things in them hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other scriptures. (2Peter (RSV) 3)

Traditionally, second Peter is thought to have been written around 65-68 AD, so it's obvious that, since Peter was a good Jew, the canon was not yet "set" by that time.

I just looked at the Zondervan Encyclopedia on "Sanhedren." Do you think these scholars are ignorant and don't know anything? They note the Sanhedrin was the highest authority in Palestine, deciding all religious affairs and even civil matters. It had members from the Pharisees, Sadducees, and included priests, nobility. By Rabbinic tradition its authority goes back to Numbers 11:16 at the time of Moses. This view is consistent with Jewish scholars, or do you hold they are ignorant too??

Thus, no book was getting into the canon without Sanhedren approval. After the destruction of the temple, the Sanhedrin was moved to Jamnia, although then, it was of diminished authority -- the temple was gone, and Romans ruled the state entirely. The Jamnia decision did not establish the canon in 90 A.D., but it decided what was already established previously as canon should remain as the official books of the Bible. This decision has never changed.

Who cares? The setting of the canon by the Jews obviously happened after 2 Peter was written. 2 Peter was written AFTER PENTECOST, so Jesus had already established His Church, who He GAVE AUTHORITY to "loose and bind". Whatever the "Jews" did alongside the infant Church is irrelevant to Christianity. THEY DON'T HAVE THE AUTHORITY TO SET THE CANON.

I don't do much study on the canon and related subjects because the arguments against accepting the LXX (and by extension the books you call "apocrypha") over the Hebrew Scriptures are so weak. It's just not a fair argument, as has been made evident in this thread.

Protestants have some valid Biblical/historical arguments concerning OSAS, salvation by faith, predestination/double predestination, etc. But this topic is really a slam dunk for the Septuagint and the acceptance of the Deuterocanonicals as Scripture. Luther had no logical reason for his rejection of the LXX, and neither do you.
 
dadof10 said:
From 2Pt. 3:16 we can see that the canon was not closed.

So also our beloved brother Paul wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, 16 speaking of this as he does in all his letters. There are some things in them hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other scriptures. (2Peter (RSV) 3)

Traditionally, second Peter is thought to have been written around 65-68 AD, so it's obvious that, since Peter was a good Jew, the canon was not yet "set" by that time.
Dad, can I get you to explain your thinking here? I have read this verse several times now and don't see any discussion of canonical or not. Without comparing it with any other scriptures (which I have not done), as a stand alone statement, it seems to me to say that Peter considers the epistles of Paul to be scripture. Hard to understand and twisted by the ignorant as they do the OTHER SCRIPTURES. Am I missing something?

Westtexas
 
westtexas said:
dadof10 said:
From 2Pt. 3:16 we can see that the canon was not closed.

So also our beloved brother Paul wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, 16 speaking of this as he does in all his letters. There are some things in them hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other scriptures. (2Peter (RSV) 3)

Traditionally, second Peter is thought to have been written around 65-68 AD, so it's obvious that, since Peter was a good Jew, the canon was not yet "set" by that time.
Dad, can I get you to explain your thinking here? I have read this verse several times now and don't see any discussion of canonical or not. Without comparing it with any other scriptures (which I have not done), as a stand alone statement, it seems to me to say that Peter considers the epistles of Paul to be scripture. Hard to understand and twisted by the ignorant as they do the OTHER SCRIPTURES. Am I missing something?

Westtexas

Peter considers Paul's letters to be Scripture, therefore he considers the canon still open. If Peter, and by extension the Early Church, accepted M-Paul's assumption, that the OT canon was closed, NO writings would be allowed to be considered "Scripture". Obviously the Early Church didn't accept the "Jews" closing of the canon, if it happened before 65 AD.

Another point I didn't mention is that whenever the "Jews" decided to close the canon, either before or after 65 AD, they wouldn't (didn't) add "Paul's letters", yet Peter considers them to be inspired. Knowing only that fact, do you think the Early Church would have accepted the "Jews" judgment on the canon of Scripture? I doubt it, since they left out letters which the Christian community considered "Scripture". Once Jesus established His church, at Pentecost, authority and the guidance of the Holy Spirit, was transferred (for lack of a better word) to the Christian Church. I think it's reasonable to assume that authority extended to the recognition of which writings are inspired.

What's also interesting about this verse is the nonchalant way Peter mentions Paul's letters being "Scripture". He's not arguing the point, he seems to be stating an accepted premise. Almost the way we would comment on Paul's letters today.
 
dadof10 said:
M-Paul said:
Thus, lexicographically, Christ's reference to OT writings are those of the Hebrew Bible even as it now exists. Thus, Jesus Christ himself established the canon of the OT.

As has been pointed out, most recently by James G, the Septuagint was quoted by the writers of the NT far more than the Hebrew text was. Using your logic, that fact alone would prove that the NT and it's inspired writers established the canon of the OT, and that it's the LXX, not the Hebrew text.

From 2Pt. 3:16 we can see that the canon was not closed.

So also our beloved brother Paul wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, 16 speaking of this as he does in all his letters. There are some things in them hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other scriptures. (2Peter (RSV) 3)

Traditionally, second Peter is thought to have been written around 65-68 AD, so it's obvious that, since Peter was a good Jew, the canon was not yet "set" by that time.

I just looked at the Zondervan Encyclopedia on "Sanhedren." Do you think these scholars are ignorant and don't know anything? They note the Sanhedrin was the highest authority in Palestine, deciding all religious affairs and even civil matters. It had members from the Pharisees, Sadducees, and included priests, nobility. By Rabbinic tradition its authority goes back to Numbers 11:16 at the time of Moses. This view is consistent with Jewish scholars, or do you hold they are ignorant too??

Thus, no book was getting into the canon without Sanhedren approval. After the destruction of the temple, the Sanhedrin was moved to Jamnia, although then, it was of diminished authority -- the temple was gone, and Romans ruled the state entirely. The Jamnia decision did not establish the canon in 90 A.D., but it decided what was already established previously as canon should remain as the official books of the Bible. This decision has never changed.

Who cares? The setting of the canon by the Jews obviously happened after 2 Peter was written. 2 Peter was written AFTER PENTECOST, so Jesus had already established His Church, who He GAVE AUTHORITY to "loose and bind". Whatever the "Jews" did alongside the infant Church is irrelevant to Christianity. THEY DON'T HAVE THE AUTHORITY TO SET THE CANON.

.

Virtually all serious scholars, as opposed to Christian Apologists, consider 2 Peter to be a second century pseudographical work. Therefore quoting it to establish canon is problematic at best.
 
Physicist said:
dadof10 said:
M-Paul said:
Thus, lexicographically, Christ's reference to OT writings are those of the Hebrew Bible even as it now exists. Thus, Jesus Christ himself established the canon of the OT.

As has been pointed out, most recently by James G, the Septuagint was quoted by the writers of the NT far more than the Hebrew text was. Using your logic, that fact alone would prove that the NT and it's inspired writers established the canon of the OT, and that it's the LXX, not the Hebrew text.

From 2Pt. 3:16 we can see that the canon was not closed.

So also our beloved brother Paul wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, 16 speaking of this as he does in all his letters. There are some things in them hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other scriptures. (2Peter (RSV) 3)

Traditionally, second Peter is thought to have been written around 65-68 AD, so it's obvious that, since Peter was a good Jew, the canon was not yet "set" by that time.

I just looked at the Zondervan Encyclopedia on "Sanhedren." Do you think these scholars are ignorant and don't know anything? They note the Sanhedrin was the highest authority in Palestine, deciding all religious affairs and even civil matters. It had members from the Pharisees, Sadducees, and included priests, nobility. By Rabbinic tradition its authority goes back to Numbers 11:16 at the time of Moses. This view is consistent with Jewish scholars, or do you hold they are ignorant too??

Thus, no book was getting into the canon without Sanhedren approval. After the destruction of the temple, the Sanhedrin was moved to Jamnia, although then, it was of diminished authority -- the temple was gone, and Romans ruled the state entirely. The Jamnia decision did not establish the canon in 90 A.D., but it decided what was already established previously as canon should remain as the official books of the Bible. This decision has never changed.

Who cares? The setting of the canon by the Jews obviously happened after 2 Peter was written. 2 Peter was written AFTER PENTECOST, so Jesus had already established His Church, who He GAVE AUTHORITY to "loose and bind". Whatever the "Jews" did alongside the infant Church is irrelevant to Christianity. THEY DON'T HAVE THE AUTHORITY TO SET THE CANON.

.

Virtually all serious scholars, as opposed to Christian Apologists, consider 2 Peter to be a second century pseudographical work. Therefore quoting it to establish canon is problematic at best.

Not all. And, as far as I can tell, M-Paul and Westtexas, to whom these posts were addressed, believe 2Pt. to be inspired.

http://bible.org/article/authorship-second-peter

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/11752a.htm
 
dadof10 said:
westtexas said:
francisdesales said:
Very well, I am sure that some are reading and learning, even if you are not..
It has been quite informative. Thank you!
Westtexas

Ditto... :clap


I believe this whole conversation is a total waste of time on everyone's part.

Even if certain books were allowed or not allowed, does not make any difference ! These conversations, as far as I am concerned are nothing short of total confusion on every participants part .

I seen time and time again, people who claim to read the scriptures, time and time again they come up with their own private interpretation of what this or that says within any book they are reading from. They totally never look for the consistency within scripture, as they can not see it from a spiritual perspective in the first place.

If one does not have the Spirit of God in them, Christ in them, the Spirit of truth, you will never come to the truth within a conversation such as this one ! This is just an argument over whether or not certain books should or should not be allowed. If you can't read them with proper understanding in the first place, it would matter not if you read from 40 books or 60 books.

And it does not matter who claims authority over which is to be canon or not. Jesus said, man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God. Anything that proceedeth out of the mouth of men for or from any perspective is shear folly ! Empty words with no authority from God whatsoever are empty words.

Enough said
 
Mysteryman said:
dadof10 said:
westtexas said:
It has been quite informative. Thank you!
Westtexas

Ditto... :clap


I believe this whole conversation is a total waste of time on everyone's part.

Why are you taking the TIME to write 3 paragraphs on a topic you care nothing about? Simply for confrontation? To stir the pot? That seems to be your MO.

Even if certain books were allowed or not allowed, does not make any difference ! These conversations, as far as I am concerned are nothing short of total confusion on every participants part .

I seen time and time again, people who claim to read the scriptures, time and time again they come up with their own private interpretation of what this or that says within any book they are reading from. They totally never look for the consistency within scripture, as they can not see it from a spiritual perspective in the first place.

If one does not have the Spirit of God in them, Christ in them, the Spirit of truth, you will never come to the truth within a conversation such as this one ! This is just an argument over whether or not certain books should or should not be allowed. If you can't read them with proper understanding in the first place, it would matter not if you read from 40 books or 60 books.

And it does not matter who claims authority over which is to be canon or not. Jesus said, man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God. Anything that proceedeth out of the mouth of men for or from any perspective is shear folly ! Empty words with no authority from God whatsoever are empty words.

Enough said

Then say no more here.
 
Mysteryman said:
If you can't read them with proper understanding in the first place, it would matter not if you read from 40 books or 60 books.

This conversation is not about understanding the contents of "the Bible", it is about what IS the Bible in the first place, so you are welcome to remain an observer.
 
Physicist said:
Virtually all serious scholars, as opposed to Christian Apologists, consider 2 Peter to be a second century pseudographical work. Therefore quoting it to establish canon is problematic at best.

You are missing the point. The fact that a Christian could say that Paul's writings were Scripture would indicate that there was no closed canon, even in the second century, and that Christians felt no problem with setting their own writings alongside the LXX and call them inspired by God, as well.

Even the non-Christian Jews believed that the canon was not closed officially and completely until near the end of the second century with the writing of the MIshna. Men of the first and second century just did not have the mindset that we have today about closing the canon...

Regards
 
Francis,

Your answers are all entirely disingenuous. My responses have answered the points you raised -- but you would not admit it, even if they were announced by angels sounding trumpets as the posts displayed.

You are only posting to create impressions -- always degrading me, calling me ignorant, changing what I said for a response, denying my clarifications on what I said, throwing in any facts to create confusion and on and on and on.

What you have clearly demonstrated is how at least one Catholic is incapable of genuine conversation when a Protestant position seems difficult for the Catholic concept of authority.

You want me to actually quote what the Zondervan Encyclopedia says -- that would be simple but futile, for you would just pull another trick out of your bag to walk circles around it.

What it all boils down to is, Catholics have no choice but to find a way to discredit the Protestant view on the canon, as it leaves the RCC unable in any way to defend their theology on what authority they have and what they are. And when their initial explanations are not adequate, they resort to the stunts and tricks you have used in this thread. Thank you, at least, for your extended demonstration of how that tactic works.

PS --(An example of the ridiculous games being played -- I said no Jews thought the Hebrew texts of the LXX were important enough to be preserved, and Francis answers my statement is foolish, due to the DSS discoveries --- which occurred in 1947 of documents about 2,000 years old. It's completely some kind of ridiculous game, pretending that an appearance of a response has been made.)
 
** Bump For M-Paul**

M-Paul said:
Thus, lexicographically, Christ's reference to OT writings are those of the Hebrew Bible even as it now exists. Thus, Jesus Christ himself established the canon of the OT.

As has been pointed out, most recently by James G, the Septuagint was quoted by the writers of the NT far more than the Hebrew text was. Using your logic, that fact alone would prove that the NT and it's inspired writers established the canon of the OT, and that it's the LXX, not the Hebrew text.

From 2Pt. 3:16 we can see that the canon was not closed.

So also our beloved brother Paul wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, 16 speaking of this as he does in all his letters. There are some things in them hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other scriptures. (2Peter (RSV) 3)

Traditionally, second Peter is thought to have been written around 65-68 AD, so it's obvious that, since Peter was a good Jew, the canon was not yet "set" by that time.

I just looked at the Zondervan Encyclopedia on "Sanhedren." Do you think these scholars are ignorant and don't know anything? They note the Sanhedrin was the highest authority in Palestine, deciding all religious affairs and even civil matters. It had members from the Pharisees, Sadducees, and included priests, nobility. By Rabbinic tradition its authority goes back to Numbers 11:16 at the time of Moses. This view is consistent with Jewish scholars, or do you hold they are ignorant too??

Thus, no book was getting into the canon without Sanhedren approval. After the destruction of the temple, the Sanhedrin was moved to Jamnia, although then, it was of diminished authority -- the temple was gone, and Romans ruled the state entirely. The Jamnia decision did not establish the canon in 90 A.D., but it decided what was already established previously as canon should remain as the official books of the Bible. This decision has never changed.

Who cares? The setting of the canon by the Jews obviously happened after 2 Peter was written. 2 Peter was written AFTER PENTECOST, so Jesus had already established His Church, who He GAVE AUTHORITY to "loose and bind". Whatever the "Jews" did alongside the infant Church is irrelevant to Christianity. THEY DON'T HAVE THE AUTHORITY TO SET THE CANON.

I don't do much study on the canon and related subjects because the arguments against accepting the LXX (and by extension the books you call "apocrypha") over the Hebrew Scriptures are so weak. It's just not a fair argument, as has been made evident in this thread.

Protestants have some valid Biblical/historical arguments concerning OSAS, salvation by faith, predestination/double predestination, etc. But this topic is really a slam dunk for the Septuagint and the acceptance of the Deuterocanonicals as Scripture. Luther had no logical reason for his rejection of the LXX, and neither do you.
 
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