Paul said there is "one baptism"

[Charlie24]

Why did he say there is "one baptism?" First, let's take a look at this one baptism.

Col. 2: 11-13
"In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;"

This is the "spiritual baptism" the "one baptism" that Paul is speaking of. It takes place the instant of hearing the Gospel and believing in His finished work. It's not water baptism, it is what Jeremiah spoke of "the circumcision made without hands," Paul called it "baptized into Christ" throughout His letters. It has nothing to do with water, it's your true salvation in the eyes of God.

So what about the other 2 baptisms found in the New Covenant, water baptism and the baptism of the Holy Spirit with evidence of speaking in other tongues? Paul said there is "one baptism."

Water baptism is not a baptism to itself, it is the reenactment of the "spiritual baptism," which is your true salvation. In the "spiritual baptism" you are baptized/immersed into Christ spiritually, symbolically done in water being immersed in Christ.

"Buried with Him in baptism" (spiritually), symbolically buried in the water. "Raised a new creature in Christ" symbolically being raised out of the water. So water baptism is a part of the "one baptism" spiritually performed by Christ. In other words, water baptism is symbolic of the one true spiritual baptism. Which means the only purpose of water baptism is to give a literal reflection of the one true spiritual baptism, which is also our literal confession of salvation.

The "baptism of the Holy Spirit with the evidence of speaking in other tongues" in spite of what the Pentecostals claim, is not a baptism! It is a "filling/receiving of the Holy Spirit" and is always referred to in that manner.

The only one who literally says, "baptized with the Holy Spirit" is John the Baptist. Before the Pentecostals came along claiming this is what John the Baptist spoke of, all the great theologians agreed that John the Baptist was speaking of "the one baptism" the spiritual baptism into Christ. In other words, the instant of our salvation. It is through faith in the finished work of Christ that the Holy Spirit, spiritually baptizes us into Christ, "the one baptism."

This is where all the confusion comes from with the Pentecostals "baptism of the Holy Spirit." They have given it a name that has already been given meaning!

 

[hawkman]

As a Christian are you open to receiving gifts of the Holy Spirit . That would be the question .

Matthew 3:11 - I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:

Acts 2:38 - Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Acts 1:5 - For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence.

 

[Charlie24]

As a Christian are you open to receiving gifts of the Holy Spirit . That would be the question .

Matthew 3:11 - I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:

Acts 2:38 - Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Acts 1:5 - For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence.

The Baptism that John spoke of was the initial baptism of the Holy Spirit, man becoming born-again by way of the Holy Spirit now coming to permanently to dwell in man. The Holy Spirit could not come to dwell permanently in man before this. Although man could be saved, he did not have the indwelling Holy Spirit.

The Pentecostals concentrate on the speaking in other tongues as the baptism, and ignore this when the indwelling Holy Spirit made His grand entrance!

It has been well established centuries ago that "for the remission of sins" should have been translated "because of the remission of sins." Water baptism has nothing to do with our actual salvation, but is literal visual reenactment of confessing our faith in the "spiritual baptism" into Christ.

 

[Hidden In Him]

Col. 2: 11-13
"In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;"

Hmm... I'm tempted to believe your hypothesis... only I don't know that the above could be used to support it. The word "quickened" is more than likely reference to the outpouring, for it says we are "quickened together with Him," referencing Christ's resurrection from the dead by supernatural means...

I simply teach that we are born again through the word which lives and abides forever, for His words are Spirit and they are Life. This would correspond with what you may be getting at in that it precedes both water and Spirit baptism, and takes takes precedence over both as the one thing truly necessary for salvation.

But I don't think Colossians 2:11-13 can be used to support it. I think both the circumcision made by hands and "being baptized with Him in baptism" refer to water baptism here, which was a symbol of dying to the old man, and a required ceremony for those truly belonging to God (though not a requirement for salvation).

 

[Charlie24]

Hmm... I'm tempted to believe your hypothesis... only I don't know that the above could be used to support it. The word "quickened" is more than likely reference to the outpouring, for it says we are "quickened together with Him," referencing Christ's resurrection from the dead by supernatural means...

I simply teach that we are born again through the word which lives and abides forever, for His words are Spirit and they are Life. This would correspond with what you may be getting at in that it precedes both water and Spirit baptism, and takes takes precedence over both as the one thing truly necessary for salvation.

But I don't think Colossians 2:11-13 can be used to support it. I think both the circumcision made by hands and "being baptized with Him in baptism" refer to water baptism here, which was a symbol of dying to the old man, and a required ceremony for those truly belonging to God (though not a requirement for salvation).

Quickened is the made alive. Paul is saying "we are made alive with Him."

We are saved the way Paul said we are saved! It was Paul that Christ specifically chose to explain the New Covenant.

That's why he was given 13 epistles, 14 id you count Hebrews. He explains it all just as Christ gave him charge to do so!

 

[Hidden In Him]

Quickened is the made alive. Paul is saying "we are made alive with Him."

Romans 8:11 "But if the Spirit of Him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwells in you, He that raised up Christ Jesus from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies..."

It's a reference to physical resurrection.

 

[Charlie24]

Romans 8:11 "But if the Spirit of Him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwells in you, He that raised up Christ Jesus from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies..."

It's a reference to physical resurrection.

True! But not in Co. 2:11-13.

Being raised from the dead in Co. 2:12 is being made spiritually alive, which is being born-again.

What takes place at the very second of salvation is what Pau is explaining in Co. 2:11-13.

 

[Hidden In Him]

True! But not in Co. 2:11-13.

Being raised from the dead in Co. 2:12 is being made spiritually alive, which is being born-again.

What I'm saying is, he's using physical death and resurrection - equated to spiritual resurrection - to make the point that we now walk in newness of life through the outpouring of the Spirit. The passage relates more to that then to the new birth.

 

[Charlie24]

What I'm saying is, he's using physical death and resurrection - equated to spiritual resurrection - to make the point that we now walk in newness of life through the outpouring of the Spirit. The passage relates more to that then to the new birth.

My point is that there is no physical resurrection in Col. 2:12.

It is the spiritual resurrection of the dead being born-again.

This is our true salvation taking place.

 

[Hopeful]

Why did he say there is "one baptism?" First, let's take a look at this one baptism.

Col. 2: 11-13
"In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;"

This is the "spiritual baptism" the "one baptism" that Paul is speaking of. It takes place the instant of hearing the Gospel and believing in His finished work. It's not water baptism, it is what Jeremiah spoke of "the circumcision made without hands," Paul called it "baptized into Christ" throughout His letters. It has nothing to do with water, it's your true salvation in the eyes of God.

So what about the other 2 baptisms found in the New Covenant, water baptism and the baptism of the Holy Spirit with evidence of speaking in other tongues? Paul said there is "one baptism."

Water baptism is not a baptism to itself, it is the reenactment of the "spiritual baptism," which is your true salvation. In the "spiritual baptism" you are baptized/immersed into Christ spiritually, symbolically done in water being immersed in Christ.

"Buried with Him in baptism" (spiritually), symbolically buried in the water. "Raised a new creature in Christ" symbolically being raised out of the water. So water baptism is a part of the "one baptism" spiritually performed by Christ. In other words, water baptism is symbolic of the one true spiritual baptism. Which means the only purpose of water baptism is to give a literal reflection of the one true spiritual baptism, which is also our literal confession of salvation.

The "baptism of the Holy Spirit with the evidence of speaking in other tongues" in spite of what the Pentecostals claim, is not a baptism! It is a "filling/receiving of the Holy Spirit" and is always referred to in that manner.

The only one who literally says, "baptized with the Holy Spirit" is John the Baptist. Before the Pentecostals came along claiming this is what John the Baptist spoke of, all the great theologians agreed that John the Baptist was speaking of "the one baptism" the spiritual baptism into Christ. In other words, the instant of our salvation. It is through faith in the finished work of Christ that the Holy Spirit, spiritually baptizes us into Christ, "the one baptism."

This is where all the confusion comes from with the Pentecostals "baptism of the Holy Spirit." They have given it a name that has already been given meaning!

Has your doctrine allowed you to walk without sinning?
That would be the fruit I would need to deem it true.

 

[Hidden In Him]

My point is that there is no physical resurrection in Col. 2:12.

It is the spiritual resurrection of the dead being born-again.

This is our true salvation taking place.

Then your point is extremely off base according to the full counsel of the NT, but I'm not in the mood for refuting it atm.

God bless, and maybe at another time.

Thanks for the cordial interchange just the same.
- H

 

[Charlie24]

Then your point is extremely off base according to the full counsel of the NT, but I'm not in the mood for refuting it atm.

God bless, and maybe at another time.

Thanks for the cordial interchange just the same.
- H

Well, when you have time, I would like to see you try and refute it. With Scripture of course.

 

[Charlie24]

Has your doctrine allowed you to walk without sinning?
That would be the fruit I would need to deem it true.

Brother, I don't quite understand what you're saying here.

Could you explain it another way?

 

[Hopeful]

Brother, I don't quite understand what you're saying here.

Could you explain it another way?

OK, my water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, (Acts 2:38, 22:16), also enabled the destruction of the old "me". (Rom 6:6, Gal 5:24)
It enabled me to walk in the Spirit instead of the now dead "flesh". (Rom 8:9-10)
Having crucified the flesh, with the affections and lusts, has taken away one of the "legs" of what constitutes sin....according to James 1:14-15.
No lust, no sin.
So, has the baptism of the Holy Spirit, without water baptism, enabled you to walk without sin?

I feel that Paul's reference to "one baptism" is of one by God and one by men, determined by the context either is subject to.
As he himself saw to it that both occurred with the twelve at Ephesus. (Acts 19)
Two other apostles saw to it that both occurred at Samaria. (Acts 8)
Peter again saw to it that both occurred with Cornelius' group. (Acts 10)

 

[Charlie24]

OK, my water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, (Acts 2:38, 22:16), also enabled the destruction of the old "me". (Rom 6:6, Gal 5:24)
It enabled me to walk in the Spirit instead of the now dead "flesh". (Rom 8:9-10)
Having crucified the flesh, with the affections and lusts, has taken away one of the "legs" of what constitutes sin....according to James 1:14-15.
No lust, no sin.
So, has the baptism of the Holy Spirit, without water baptism, enabled you to walk without sin?

I feel that Paul's reference to "one baptism" is of one by God and one by men, determined by the context either is subject to.
As he himself saw to it that both occurred with the twelve at Ephesus. (Acts 19)
Two other apostles saw to it that both occurred at Samaria. (Acts 8)
Peter again saw to it that both occurred with Cornelius' group. (Acts 10)

Paul also said there is "one faith." Does that mean there is one faith for God and another for man.

If you apply "the one" to baptism, you must also apply it to faith.

Anyone who thinks they are living this life "with no sin" is only deceiving themselves.

Paul said that "sin would not have dominion over us" if we walk in the Spirit, not that we will become sinless!

Paul said himself that he had not come to perfection (no more sin).

If he couldn't do it, it's a good bet that none of us can do it.

 

[Mungo]

There is only one baptism and that is baptism with water.

Jesus baptised with water (John 3:26). As he said to Nicodemus “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. (John 3:5)

In Act 8:16: we are told Philip baptised in the name of the Lord Jesus
Then in Act 8:36-38 we find that Philip baptised with water so baptism in the name of the Lord Jesus was with water.

Peter baptised with water (Acts 10:47-49). Note this was baptism in the name of Jesus Christ.
After the Spirit fell on the disciples Peter ordered people to be baptised in the name of Jesus Christ - i.e. with water.

Paul baptised with water. We know this because he ordered the 12 men at Ephesus (Acts 19:5 ) to be baptised in the name of the Lord Jesus (i.e. with water). It wasn't so-called "Spirit baptism" because after that when Paul laid hands on them "the Holy Spirit came on them". (vs 6).

There is a lot more I could say about this but I haven't time right now.

 

[Charlie24]

There is only one baptism and that is baptism with water.

Jesus baptised with water (John 3:26). As he said to Nicodemus “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. (John 3:5)

In Act 8:16: we are told Philip baptised in the name of the Lord Jesus
Then in Act 8:36-38 we find that Philip baptised with water so baptism in the name of the Lord Jesus was with water.

Peter baptised with water (Acts 10:47-49). Note this was baptism in the name of Jesus Christ.
After the Spirit fell on the disciples Peter ordered people to be baptised in the name of Jesus Christ - i.e. with water.

Paul baptised with water. We know this because he ordered the 12 men at Ephesus (Acts 19:5 ) to be baptised in the name of the Lord Jesus (i.e. with water). It wasn't so-called "Spirit baptism" because after that when Paul laid hands on them "the Holy Spirit came on them". (vs 6).

There is a lot more I could say about this but I haven't time right now.

Water baptism is a commandment of Christ. The apostles enforced it with vigor. But it has nothing to do with our salvation other than showing literally what took place spiritually.

Paul told a crowd that he was glad that he water baptized none of them. Then he called out the very few that he had water baptized. If there was salvation in water baptism, you most certainly would have heard it from Paul. But you don't hear that from Paul.

Paul preached that we are saved by Grace through faith, not of works lest any man should boast.

Now you explain to me how water baptism is not a work? You can't be water baptized without another man performing a ceremony on your behalf. It's not depending on Jesus Christ, it's depending on man to get the job done!

 

[Mungo]

Water baptism is a commandment of Christ. The apostles enforced it with vigor. But it has nothing to do with our salvation other than showing literally what took place spiritually.

Paul told a crowd that he was glad that he water baptized none of them. Then he called out the very few that he had water baptized. If there was salvation in water baptism, you most certainly would have heard it from Paul. But you don't hear that from Paul.

Paul preached that we are saved by Grace through faith, not of works lest any man should boast.

Now you explain to me how water baptism is not a work? You can't be water baptized without another man performing a ceremony on your behalf. It's not depending on Jesus Christ, it's depending on man to get the job done!

I gave you actual scripture quotes with references, or just references to back up my claims.
You just give me your opinions.
Scripture trumps opinions.

 

[Charlie24]

I gave you actual scripture quotes with references, or just references to back up my claims.
You just give me your opinions.
Scripture trumps opinions.

You are taking a second hand view (Luke) of another (Peter) who is preaching a sermon!

It is an action being taken that has no explanation.

This is the perfect scenario to be misunderstood.

Let me show you something that I didn't point out, It was John Calvin who pointed this out around 500 years ago.

Acts 10:44-48
"While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.

And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.

For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,

Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?

And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days."

You can plainly see in this passage of Scripture, as Calvin pointed out, that they received the Holy Spirit and were saved BEFORE Peter commanded them to be water baptized.

 

[Hopeful]

Paul also said there is "one faith." Does that mean there is one faith for God and another for man.

Again the context would determine the statements truth.
I have faith that God's Son, Jesus, died on a cross to free me from sin.
But I also have faith that if I don't pay my electric bill, they will cut off my power.

If you apply "the one" to baptism, you must also apply it to faith.

Absolutely.
I have faith that the baptism of the Holy Ghost is given to those who repent of sin and are baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins past.
That is what occurred in Samaria and to the twelve at Ephesus.
Peter said it would happen in Acts 2:38, and I have faith his words are true.

Anyone who thinks they are living this life "with no sin" is only deceiving themselves.

Any one living without sin is walking in the light, which is God.
There is in sin in God.

Paul said that "sin would not have dominion over us" if we walk in the Spirit, not that we will become sinless!

I wonder then why he wrote..."Nevertheless the foundation of God standeth sure, having this seal, The Lord knoweth them that are his. And, let everyone that nameth the name of Christ depart from iniquity." (2 Tim 2:19)
And..."Awake to righteousness, and sin not; for some have not the knowledge of God: I speak this to your shame." (1 Cor 15:34)
And..."Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin.
For he that is dead is freed from sin.” (Rom. 6:6-7)

Paul said himself that he had not come to perfection (no more sin).

Where?
If you are thinking of Phil 3, what he had yet to attain was the resurrection of the dead.

If he couldn't do it, it's a good bet that none of us can do it.

As Jesus is our example, lets do as He did.