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Do you believe in the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ? How could you make such a statement knowing what Christ accomplished on the cross? You say the Mosaic law is very much alive today, yet through the crucifixion we have been baptized into his death, and have become dead to the law that it shall not rule us. The Mosaic law is dead to me.

You have posted the same comment in a number of different threads starting with "Law vs. grace, which one are we under or are we under both!"
Why is it we most always look at law and grace as an either or thing; or else think we actively serve both?
The law gives us the knowledge of sin, and through the knowledge of sin the Lord extends unto us his Grace;
Where iniquity shall abound, Grace shall abound all the more.
Without the knowledge of sin, would the Grace of the Lord be of any effect?

Beware of the temptations that come when you eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, the knowledge of the law, and the knowledge of sin: for that knowledge creates within you a desire for obedience that you should serve the law.
But through Faith in Christ we have become dead to the law. Set free from serving the law after the flesh that we might go forth and serve the Lord through Faith after the Spirit instead.

So instead of asking if it is law versus grace, maybe the more pertinent question would be:
Do you serve the Law? Or Do you Serve the Lord?

Jesus did not set us free from the curse of the law; he became the curse of the law unto us.

I'm speaking of the moral laws (#post 4) that we are yet to abide in as we walk in Gods will of love towards one another. These are to be kept until Jesus fulfills all things upon His return. These laws have nothing to do with law vs. grace as within the yet existing ones we walk in Gods will.

Mat 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
Mat 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
Mat 5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
 
Yes, it's one of the 613. :shrug
See # 73....
http://www.jewfaq.org/613.htm nm

The Law of Moses' was a progressive law. :wink
You are correct as I did not read further, but yet when did God himself put an end to having more than one wife.

#73 Not to withhold food, clothing or conjugal rights from a wife (Ex. 21:10)

According to the Torah and the Talmud, a man was permitted to marry more than one wife, but a woman could not marry more than one man. Although polygyny was permitted, it was never common. The Talmud never mentions any rabbi with more than one wife. Around 1000 C.E., Ashkenazic Jewry banned polygyny because of pressure from the predominant Christian culture. It continued to be permitted for Sephardic Jews in Islamic lands for many years. To the present day, Yemenite and Ethiopian Jews continue to practice polygyny; however, the modern state of Israel allows only one wife. Those who move to Israel with more than one wife are permitted to remain married to all of the existing wives, but cannot marry additional ones.

BTW: we are getting off topic, but an interesting study.