Preexistence of Christ

MisterE

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Preexistence of Christ

The reaction of Jesus' critics to his statement-attempting to stone him (John 8:59)-confirms that they thought he was making a divine claim. Had Jesus stated only that he had been alive longer than Abraham, they might have regarded such a claim as crazy (as they apparently did with regard to his earlier comments, vv. 48-57), but not as an offense meriting stoning.

Of the offenses for which Jews practiced stoning, the only one that seems to fit the context here is blasphemy. Claiming to be older than Abraham might have been judged crazy, but it would not have been judged as blasphemy. Speaking as if one were Abraham's eternal God, on the other hand, would be quickly deemed blasphemous by Jesus' critics, who of course did not recognize his divine claims as valid. In another passage in his Gospel, John comments on the failure of many of the people to believe in Jesus despite the many miracles they had witnessed him perform. Although he had performed so many signs in their presence, they did not believe in him.... And so they could not believe, because Isaiah also said,

"He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, so that they might not look with their eyes, and understand with their heart and turn-and I would heal them." Isaiah said this because he saw his glory and spoke about him. (12:37, 39-41) The quotation in this passage is from Isaiah 6:10, part of the passage in which Isaiah recounts his call to the prophetic ministry. When John says that Isaiah "saw his glory," he means the glory of Jesus as the context makes clear (vv. 36-38; see also 1:14).

But in the context of Isaiah 6, the glory that Isaiah saw was the glory of the Lord. In the year that King Uzziah died, I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, high and lofty; and the hem of his robe filled the temple. Seraphs were in attendance above him; each had six wings: with two they covered their faces, and with two they covered their feet, and with two they flew. And one called to another and said: "Holy, holy, holy is the LORD of hosts; the whole earth is full of his glory."

Here again, John speaks of Jesus not only as having existed during Old Testament times but also as having been the glorious Lord who spoke to and through the prophets. Thus this passage is another affirmation in the New Testament of the divine preexistence of Jesus Christ.

The New Testament pushes the existence of the Son of God back long before the days of Israel. It teaches that Christ was around-and involved-in the creation of the world! We will explore this point later when we discuss the deeds or works of God that Christ performs, but we should take some notice of the main biblical statements now.

Paul wrote that "in him [God's Son] all things in heaven and on earth were created, things visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or powers-all things have been created through him and for him" (Col. 1:16). Paul's statement here clearly means that the Son existed before all things were created. What Paul says, of course, also distinguishes God's Son from the entire realm of all creation. The apostle John agreed: "All things came into being through him, and without him not one thing came into being.... He was in the world, and the world came into being through him; yet the world did not know him" (John 1:3, 10). The book of Hebrews says that God "has spoken to us by a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, through whom he also created the worlds" (1:2). The logic is simple enough: "If indeed everything came into being through Christ, then there is no option other than that he existed before that creation." In all three of these passages, the authors make other statements that confirm their meaning-the person known as Jesus Christ preexisted creation. After saying that all things were created in, through, and for the Son, Paul adds, "He himself is before all things, and in him all things hold together" (Col. 1:17). Paul here states emphatically that the Son exists prior to all creation." Since the creation of the universe is also the beginning of time (Heb. 1:2), to say that "If indeed everything came into being through Christ, then there is no option other than that he existed before that creation."

Christ exists "before" creation is to say in effect that he has always existed-that his existence had no beginning.

Paul's statement in an earlier epistle that Christians believe in "one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist" (1 Cor. 8:6) should likewise be understood to entail his existence before creation. Just before John states that all things came into existence through Christ-whom he calls the "Word" (logos)-John says, "In the beginning was the Word" (John 1:1). Here, John asserts that the Word already existed "in the beginning," hearkening back to the beginning of creation (cf. Gen. 1:1). That "the Word" was a person, and not some abstraction, is made clear by John's next statement, "and the Word was with God" (pros ton theon, 1:1). The word pros (here translated "with") in this context denotes personal association with someone else, as is confirmed later in the same Gospel when John says that Jesus was going "to depart from this world and go to the Father [pros ton patera]" and that he "had come from God and was going to God [pros ton theon]" (John 13:1, 3; see also John 7:33; 14:12, 28; 16:5, 10, 17, 28; 20:17).

The one who was close to God the Father in the very beginning had come from him and was about to depart and go back to be close to him again. The Gospel of John also reports that Jesus referred to his preexistence before creation in his majestic prayer to the Father: "So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed" (John 17:5). It is difficult to imagine a more explicit affirmation of Christ's existence before creation. To these statements we may add Jesus' statement, "Before Abraham came into being, I am" (John 8:58), which we discussed earlier.
 
Greetings Mister E,
The reaction of Jesus' critics to his statement-attempting to stone him (John 8:59)-confirms that they thought he was making a divine claim.
I would like to briefly respond to two aspects of your post. The first is that despite the fact that John 8:58 is a popular verse used by Trinitarians, I disagree with their conclusion. I consider that John 8:58 should be translated "I am he" the same as John 8:24,28 and this is part of the theme of whether or not Jesus is the Christ.
Here again, John speaks of Jesus not only as having existed during Old Testament times but also as having been the glorious Lord who spoke to and through the prophets. Thus this passage is another affirmation in the New Testament of the divine preexistence of Jesus Christ.
I consider that the vision of Isaiah 6 speaks of when Jesus returns and sits upon the Temple Throne of David in Jerusalem in the future and thus this is not speaking about his preexistence.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings Mister E,

I would like to briefly respond to two aspects of your post. The first is that despite the fact that John 8:58 is a popular verse used by Trinitarians, I disagree with their conclusion. I consider that John 8:58 should be translated "I am he" the same as John 8:24,28 and this is part of the theme of whether or not Jesus is the Christ.

I consider that the vision of Isaiah 6 speaks of when Jesus returns and sits upon the Temple Throne of David in Jerusalem in the future and thus this is not speaking about his preexistence.

Kind regards
Trevor
Jesus shows up often in the Old Testament—not by that name, and not in the same form as we see Him in the New Testament, but He is there nonetheless. The theme of the entire Bible is Christ.

Jesus Himself confirmed the fact that He is in the Old Testament. In John 5:46 He explained to some religious leaders who had challenged Him that the Old Testament was talking about Him: “If you believed Moses, you would believe me, for he wrote about me.” According to Jesus, God’s work with man since time began all pointed to Him. Another time when Jesus showed that He is in the Old Testament was on the day of His resurrection. Jesus was walking with two of His disciples, and “beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he explained to them what was said in all the Scriptures concerning himself” (Luke 24:27). Earlier, before His crucifixion, Jesus had pointed to Isaiah 53:12 and said, “It is written: ‘And he was numbered with the transgressors’ and I tell you that this must be fulfilled in me. Yes, what is written about me is reaching its fulfillment” (Luke 22:37).

By some counts, more than 300 Old Testament prophecies point to Jesus Christ and were fulfilled by Him in His life on earth. These include prophecies about His unique birth (Isaiah 7:14), His earthly ministry (Isaiah 61:1), and even the way He would die (Psalm 22). Jesus shocked the religious establishment when He stood up in the synagogue of Nazareth and read from Isaiah 61, concluding with this commentary: “This scripture has been fulfilled in your hearing today” (Luke 4:18–21).

Another way that Jesus is in the Old Testament is in the form of Christophanies—pre-incarnate appearances of the Son of God. The Old Testament uses the term angel of the Lord interchangeably with the Lord in reference to these visitations. One Christophany is found in Genesis 18:1–33 when the Lord appeared to Abram in human form. Such tangible encounters with deity are scattered throughout the Old Testament (Genesis 16:7–14; 22:11–18; Judges 5:23; 2 Kings 19:35; Daniel 3:25). See Daniel where he appears in the Lion's den and also in the furnace.

But there are even deeper ways that Jesus is found in the Old Testament. These are seen in what we call “types.” A type is a person or thing in the Old Testament that foreshadows a person or thing in the New. For example, the tabernacle, the sacrificial system, and the Passover are all types of Christ’s redemption. In addition, some of the lives of Old Testament characters reflect elements of the life of Christ. Moses, like Jesus, spoke for God, confronted the evil powers of the day, and led his people to freedom through a miraculous deliverance. The life of Joseph is another that seems to model the life of Christ.

Many Old Testament historical events double as symbols of what God would do in the future, through Christ. For example, God called Abraham to offer his son Isaac as a sacrifice. Abraham uttered these prophetic words in response to Isaac’s question about a lamb: “God himself will provide the lamb for the burnt offering, my son” (Genesis 22:8). God did provide a ram in Isaac’s place, symbolizing what He would do thousands of years later on that very mountain when His own Son was offered as a sacrifice in our place (Matthew 27:33). Events surrounding the sacrifice of Isaac thus serve as a type of the sacrifice of Christ.

Jesus referred to another event in Israel’s history as a foreshadowing of His crucifixion. In the wilderness, the people following Moses had sinned, and God sent serpents among them to bite them. The people were dying, and they appealed to Moses for help. God told Moses to make a bronze serpent and place it on a pole. All those who looked to it would be healed (Numbers 21:4–19). Jesus alluded to this incident in John 3:14–15: “Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the wilderness, so the Son of Man must be lifted up, that everyone who believes in Him may have eternal life in him.”

God’s design for the tabernacle is another way that Jesus is in the Old Testament. The altar in the courtyard symbolizes the need for Jesus’ sacrifice to atone for our sin. The laver shows Jesus as providing the water of life (John 4:14). Inside the Holy Place, the lampstand is suggestive of Jesus as the light of the world (John 9:5). The table of showbread is Jesus as the bread of life (John 6:35). In the altar of incense is seen Jesus as our heavenly intercessor, continually offering prayers for us (Romans 8:34; Hebrews 7:25). According to Hebrews 10:20, the veil before the ark of the covenant is a picture of Jesus’ human flesh.

The Son of God is not just in the New Testament; Jesus is in the Old Testament, too. Jesus is God’s promised Messiah. From the virgin birth in Bethlehem (Isaiah 7:14; Luke 1:35; Micah 5:2), through the sojourn to Egypt (Hosea 11:1; Matthew 2:14–15), to His ministry of healing and hope (Genesis 3:15; 1 John 3:8), all the way through His resurrection (Psalm 16:9–11; Acts 2:31), Jesus Christ is the theme of both Old and New Testaments. It could be said that Jesus is the reason for the Bible. He is the Living Word. The entire Bible is a beacon that points us to God’s offer of reconciliation, the hope of forgiveness and eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
 
Greetings Mister E,

I would like to briefly respond to two aspects of your post. The first is that despite the fact that John 8:58 is a popular verse used by Trinitarians, I disagree with their conclusion. I consider that John 8:58 should be translated "I am he" the same as John 8:24,28 and this is part of the theme of whether or not Jesus is the Christ.
Except that it absolutely cannot mean "I am he," for reasons I've mentioned before. First, it makes Jesus say grammatical nonsense. Second, it doesn't answer the question he was asked. You cannot just go add "he" into the text when it isn't warranted, and in John 8:58 it is not at all warranted.

I consider that the vision of Isaiah 6 speaks of when Jesus returns and sits upon the Temple Throne of David in Jerusalem in the future and thus this is not speaking about his preexistence.
Except that there is no reason to believe it is future; that would ignore the context of John 12:41:

Joh 12:36 While you have the light, believe in the light, that you may become sons of light.” When Jesus had said these things, he departed and hid himself from them.
Joh 12:37 Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him,
Joh 12:38 so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled: “Lord, who has believed what he heard from us, and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?”
Joh 12:39 Therefore they could not believe. For again Isaiah said,
Joh 12:40 “He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, lest they see with their eyes, and understand with their heart, and turn, and I would heal them.”
Joh 12:41 Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke of him. (ESV)

The context has to do with Jesus's contemporaries, those to whom he spoke and did signs for but did not believe. "Isaiah said these things" is with regard to Jesus and his ministry, but then we must take into account the context of Isaiah.

We know that Isaiah saw Yahweh:

Isa 6:1 In the year that King Uzziah died I saw the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up; and the train of his robe filled the temple.
Isa 6:2 Above him stood the seraphim. Each had six wings: with two he covered his face, and with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew.
Isa 6:3 And one called to another and said: “Holy, holy, holy is the LORD of hosts; the whole earth is full of his glory!”
Isa 6:4 And the foundations of the thresholds shook at the voice of him who called, and the house was filled with smoke.
Isa 6:5 And I said: “Woe is me! For I am lost; for I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips; for my eyes have seen the King, the LORD of hosts!”
Isa 6:6 Then one of the seraphim flew to me, having in his hand a burning coal that he had taken with tongs from the altar.
Isa 6:7 And he touched my mouth and said: “Behold, this has touched your lips; your guilt is taken away, and your sin atoned for.”
Isa 6:8 And I heard the voice of the Lord saying, “Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?” Then I said, “Here I am! Send me.”
Isa 6:9 And he said, “Go, and say to this people: “‘Keep on hearing, but do not understand; keep on seeing, but do not perceive.’
Isa 6:10 Make the heart of this people dull, and their ears heavy, and blind their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed.” (ESV)

So, Isaiah sees "the Lord sitting upon a throne," whom the seraphim say is Yahweh ("the LORD"). It is of that being that Isaiah exclaims "Woe is me! . . . for my eyes have seen the King, the LORD [YHWH] of hosts!". Isaiah saw Yahweh, without question, and John says that Isaiah saw Jesus. For both of those things to be true, the only possibility is that the Son is Yahweh.

Your only option, according to your argument, is that somehow Jesus became Yahweh, which is impossible. He could only have been Yahweh to begin with and never ceased being so, since Yahweh cannot cease being who he is.
 
Greetings Eternally-grateful and Greetings again Mister E,
I am amazed at all those who think Jesus was just a man. If he was just a man, at best he could take another mans sin.
That is why God needed to raise a specially chosen vessel, the Son of God by birth and character Matthew 1:20-21, Luke 1:34-35, John 1:14.
Jesus shows up often in the Old Testament—not by that name, and not in the same form as we see Him in the New Testament, but He is there nonetheless. The theme of the entire Bible is Christ.
I agree with most of what you have stated, but I consider that the various appearances in the OT were angels who spoke and acted on Yahweh's behalf.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings Free,
Except that it absolutely cannot mean "I am he," for reasons I've mentioned before. First, it makes Jesus say grammatical nonsense. Second, it doesn't answer the question he was asked. You cannot just go add "he" into the text when it isn't warranted, and in John 8:58 it is not at all warranted.
Yes, we have discussed tis before and I disagree with your conclusions and I am happy with what I previously discussed with you. I also consider that Exodus 3:14 should be translated as with Tyndale "I wilbe", and RV and RSV margins "I will be".
Your only option, according to your argument, is that somehow Jesus became Yahweh, which is impossible.
Yahweh, He who will become who He will become has become Jesus, the Son of God, revealed through His birth and character. The most significant vision of the Throne of God in the OT is Psalm 110:1 and this does not correspond with Isaiah 6 in any of its detail. In Psalm 110:1 Yahweh God the Father sits upon His Throne awaiting the exaltation of Jesus after his crucifixion, death and resurrection, while the vision of Isaiah 6 is of Jesus in the Temple, His Throne replacing the Ark of the Covenant, and also the Altar of Burnt Offering is part of the vision of Isaiah 6.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings Eternally-grateful and Greetings again Mister E,

That is why God needed to raise a specially chosen vessel, the Son of God by birth and character Matthew 1:20-21, Luke 1:34-35, John 1:14.

I agree with most of what you have stated, but I consider that the various appearances in the OT were angels who spoke and acted on Yahweh's behalf.

Kind regards
Trevor
Certainly many angels appeared to a few select individuals. My point is that there are several Christophanes in the OT. This requires Jesus to have preexisted before his human birth. I think you would agree with this, but maybe not
 
Greetings Free,

Yes, we have discussed tis before and I disagree with your conclusions and I am happy with what I previously discussed with you. I also consider that Exodus 3:14 should be translated as with Tyndale "I wilbe", and RV and RSV margins "I will be".
First, Ex. 3:14 can be translated as "I Am." That is a legitimate translation. Second, regardless of how Ex. 3:14 is translated, sticking only to what Jesus said, my points still stand that if Jesus says "I am he" in John 8:58, it is grammatical nonsense and doesn't actually answer the question he was asked. Why do you think the Jews wanted to stone him? Blasphemy, perhaps?

Yahweh, He who will become who He will become has become Jesus, the Son of God, revealed through His birth and character.
Are you saying the Father became the Son? If so, when did that occur?

The most significant vision of the Throne of God in the OT is Psalm 110:1 and this does not correspond with Isaiah 6 in any of its detail. In Psalm 110:1 Yahweh God the Father sits upon His Throne awaiting the exaltation of Jesus after his crucifixion, death and resurrection, while the vision of Isaiah 6 is of Jesus in the Temple, His Throne replacing the Ark of the Covenant, and also the Altar of Burnt Offering is part of the vision of Isaiah 6.
Remember, a plain reading of the text, which we need to stick to, is that Isaiah saw Yahweh, but John says that Isaiah saw Jesus, the Son. Again, there is only one logical conclusion--the Son is also Yahweh, but not the Father. What you're saying is that Isaiah was wrong; it cannot be otherwise according to your position.
 
The verb form used here is אֶהְיֶה (ʾehyeh), the Qal imperfect, first person common singular, of the verb הָיָה (hayah, “to be”). It forms an excellent paronomasia with the name. So when God used the verb to express his name, he used this form saying, “I am.” When his people refer to him as Yahweh, which is the third person masculine singular form of the same verb, they say “he is.”

Some commentators argue for a future tense translation, “I will be who I will be,” because the verb has an active quality about it, and the Israelites lived in the light of the promises for the future. They argue that “I am” would be of little help to the Israelites in bondage. But a translation of “I will be” does not effectively do much more except restrict it to the future. The idea of the verb would certainly indicate that God is not bound by time, and while he is present (“I am”) he will always be present, even in the future, and so “I am” would embrace that as well (see also Ruth 2:13; Ps 50:21; Hos 1:9). The Greek translation of the OT used a participle to capture the idea, and several times in the Gospels Jesus used the powerful “I am” with this significance (e.g., John 8:58). The point is that Yahweh is sovereignly independent of all creation and that his presence guarantees the fulfillment of the covenant (cf. Isa 41:4; 42:6, 8; 43:10-11; 44:6; 45:5-7). Others argue for a causative Hiphil translation of “I will cause to be,” but nowhere in the Bible does this verb appear in Hiphil or Piel.
 
Greetings again Mister E and Free,
Certainly many angels appeared to a few select individuals. My point is that there are several Christophanes in the OT. This requires Jesus to have preexisted before his human birth. I think you would agree with this, but maybe not
I believe that the various Theophanies in the OT were Angels, not Jesus.
First, Ex. 3:14 can be translated as "I Am." That is a legitimate translation.
I consider that "I Am" is an incorrect translation.
Second, regardless of how Ex. 3:14 is translated, sticking only to what Jesus said, my points still stand that if Jesus says "I am he" in John 8:58, it is grammatical nonsense and doesn't actually answer the question he was asked. Why do you think the Jews wanted to stone him? Blasphemy, perhaps?
Refer our previous discussion in an earlier thread.
Remember, a plain reading of the text, which we need to stick to, is that Isaiah saw Yahweh, but John says that Isaiah saw Jesus, the Son. Again, there is only one logical conclusion--the Son is also Yahweh, but not the Father. What you're saying is that Isaiah was wrong; it cannot be otherwise according to your position.
You will need to explain this vision, and compare it with Psalm 110:1. The vision is only understandable if it depicts Jesus in the future Temple Throne of David in Jerusalem during the future 1000 year Kingdom upon the earth.
Some commentators argue for a future tense translation, “I will be who I will be,” because the verb has an active quality about it, and the Israelites lived in the light of the promises for the future. They argue that “I am” would be of little help to the Israelites in bondage. But a translation of “I will be” does not effectively do much more except restrict it to the future.
Yes, I agree with "I will be" as correct as it is speaking about God's deliverance of Israel out of Egypt and bringing them into the promised land. This does not in any way restrict God, as he already used the present tense in Exodus 3:6 where he states "I am the God of Abraham", and this of necessity expresses his existence. Also "I will be" of necessity expresses also his present existence.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
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