Mysteryman
Member
veteran said:watchman F said:Two accounts in Job does not prove that sons of God means angels and only angels in every occasion through out the O.T.. In the context of Genesis 6 there is no reason anyone should believe that angels had offspring with humans, nor that the giants in the land were the offspring of any union between the sons of God, and the daughters of men regardless of who or what they represent.
It's actually 3 separate OT accounts defining in that time that the "sons of God" then ONLY meant angels, Genesis 6, Job 1 & 2, and 38. The "sons of God" title as used in the NT is connected with the heavenly state of the angels also, because it's actually pointing to our future state after the change to the "spiritual body" which Apostle Paul taught in 1 Cor.15. Christ in Matt.22:30 when answering the Sadducees about the resurrection, said that in the resurrecdtion "they are as the angels of God in heaven". This is also why Apostle John said what he did here...
I Jn 3:1-3
1 Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew Him not.
2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when He shall appear, we shall be like Him; for we shall see Him as He is.
3 And every man that hath this hope in Him purifieth himself, even as He is pure.
(KJV)
Thus I'm very surprised that some would choose to stray totally away from the only evidence for that title "sons of God" within Scripture, and in leaning to their own philosophy outside God's Word. With many mysterious events in God's Word, we are not required to always understand HOW an event could take place; we are asked to believe God's Word as written. We are not always going to understand HOW some things could happen, which is why many unbelievers assign God's Word as myth.
The Book of Jude gives us the strongest clue of the HOW of the fallen angels mated with the daughters of men in Gen.6...
Jude 1:6-7
6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, He hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.
(KJV)
That example from Jude is about those "sons of God" (angels) in Genesis 6 that took "wives" of the daughters of men as written. We're told they "kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation". What might that mean? It definitely means they somehow left their original state when coming to the earth to take "wives" of the "daughters of men". The "Even as" is like a conjunction which continues what it was they did, put in comparison to what those of Sodom and Gomorrah did with the practice of fornication by going after strange flesh. In those two Jude verses we're being shown those angels didn't keep their original estate and habitation, meaning they actually did come to earth. And, their sin is connected with the sin of fornication, going after strange flesh.
So someone who chooses to disregard the Scripture as written because they have difficulty in understanding how something like that could happen, that's OK. But it's not OK to add a totally foreign interpretation to the Scripture where we are clearly shown those angel's sin involved a sin of fornication.
People ! Still desiring to walk not by the Spirit, but by the carnal mind.
I am going to ask you and anyone else. Can you , or anyone, give the definition of fornication from a spiritual perspective ?
I don't want the worldly definiton, I want the spiritual definition.
Like when Paul said - " I love you with a godly jealousy" < What was Paul saying spiritually ?
But I want the spiritual definiton of "fornication".
IN Christ - MM