- May 4, 2020
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TrueAs I understand TULIP, it teaches that all mankind is the same – dead in sin and totally depraved, deserving of condemnation and destruction, unable to respond to God. Because of that inability, God intervenes and saves those he alone chose and designated as the elect.
Mercy requires the elect to have faith (John 1:12 But to as many as did receive and welcome Him), said faith caused by God (John 1:13 who were born, not of blood [natural conception], nor of the will of the flesh [physical impulse], nor of the will of man [that of a natural father], but of God [that is, a divine and supernatural birth—they are born of God—spiritually transformed, renewed, sanctified]).That is not a structure for dispensing mercy. It requires nothing (no repentance or surrender) of those receiving mercy to distinguish them from the non-elect.
There is a difference. God is the potter and we are the clay. God molds some to be loved and others to be hated. God is the only creator. Man cannot create himself and therefore cannot differentiate himself from another.Therefore, with no difference between those two groups, if God is just, he would have to save the non-elect too.
God defines what is JUST and scripture shows God distributes Mercy to those He chooses. You arbitrarily define JUSTICE and intellectually support inferior man's freedom to choose above the freedom of the superior God's freedom to choose. You impose man's will over God's will. You would have the created control the creator in regards to mercy. You would have man be the cause of an immutable God's actions which contradicts God being immutable as He, according to your doctrine, would change according to His creations directions in regard to mercy/salvation. (I could go on), if God is just, he would have to save the non-elect too.
I will agree to your definition of Love as being "giving" which is to favor. (aside: nice for someone to define it for a change to enhance comprehensiveness of responses)I would argue you that you are complicating something that is very simple – profound but simple. Absolutely we agree that God is love. Love is giving. Love is sacrifice. God loves the whole world. Everyone.
God does love everyone, just not the same quantitatively.
God does give to everyone, just not the same amount. Some he makes rich, some blind, some orphans, some to be given faith which does not originate with man (John 1:13).
I don't want to yap forever. I'll just deal with WHOSOEVER BELIEVES ... This phase does NOT reveal the 'cause' of believing. So the verse could be read with two understandings:John 3:16 For God so loved……Who did he love?……the world…..What did he do because he loved?……..that he gave his only begotten son. Who did he give to?.....that whosoever believeth in him………Why did he give?.... should not perish, but have everlasting life.
1) Whosoever believes independent of God's influence or
2) Whosoever believes because God caused him to believe
John 1:13 does reveals #2 to be true; the cause of faith is God
Agreed. Note: Romans 5:8 does not define "us" .. you say everyone with exception, I say the elect. Implicit verses should be resolved by explicit verses to alleviate bias.Romans 5:8 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
John 15:13 Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends.
God had the highest love for us when we had no relationship, no part with him. We were sinners and he chose to sacrifice for us in order to give us a path to eternal life with him, all the while knowing that most of mankind would reject his offer. That is love.
You will not find one person God says He loves that went to hell. Coincidence? Granted, this is an implicit proof.
Total Depravity is not a contradiction but support the God is cause of change.Your statement that God causes their desire to change such that they willingly choose him – that is a contradiction with Total Depravity and Irresistible Grace, is it not?
Premise 1: Man totally Depraved and therefore cannot turn to God by himself (no one seeks God)
Premise 2: some men turn to God in faith
Solution: God must have caused them to turn to Him as man si incapable
Free Will is an illusion. Technically, it depends on one's definition of freewill of which I know of three definitions.One other member in this thread stated that free will is an illusion. Which does Calvinism teach? It can't be both.
Most define is as self generated salvific faith in which the cause is solely oneself. This is metaphysically impossible, scripturally untrue and can be proven false by empirical evidence.
Got to go ... I'll look pious and say I'm off the church.
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