Hello Vic.
Hi Lewis!
I’d like to state first off that I don’t see this as a salvation issue. For me, it’s just an interesting topic to explore. Here’s a little bit of the research I’ve done in the recent past.
According to
http://wikipedia.com and
http://bible.org, Luke was not Jewish. Actually, some believe that he was actually born in Traos.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Luke_the_Evangelist
From
http://www.bible.org/page.asp?page_id=1329
Assuming that Luke penned the gospel which bears his name, and the book of Acts, what do we know about him (apart from his occupation)? First, he was probably a Gentile since he is mentioned separately from the “men of the circumcision†in Colossians 4.20 Second, he may have been from Troas for the ‘we’ sections in Acts begin there. 21 Beyond this there is very little information within the NT. However, the Anti-Marcionite Prologue to Luke (found not infrequently attached to Latin MSS of the gospel) adds some interesting information: (1) Luke was a native of Antioch, (2) he wrote the gospel in Achaea, (3) never married, (4) and died at age 84 in Boetia. since the same source adds other, extremely doubtful information, all of the above is suspect as well
20 There is another subtle indicator of Luke’s race. In Acts 16, after the beginning of the first “we†section (16:11-17), Luke mentions that he was with Paul in Philippi up to the time that Paul cast out the evil spirit from the servant girl (v. 17â€â€Ã¢â‚¬Å“she followed Paul and usâ€Â). Then, in 16:19, the person changes from first to third (“her owners . . . seized Paul and Silasâ€Â). In vv. 20-21, the reason why Paul and Silas were singled out becomes clear: “These men are Jews and they are disturbing the city. They advocate customs which it is not lawful for us Romans to accept or practice.†On the assumption that the “we†sections should be taken at face value, and that Luke was a Gentile, the fact that Luke was not seized makes perfect senseâ€â€for the point of vv. 20-21 has its sting in the fact that Paul and Silas are Jews. (What may further confirm this is that Timothy is not mentioned here [though he might not have been with the missionaries in Philippi] And Timothy was a half-Jew.) In the least, if one wants to deny that Luke was a Gentile, he must explain why the first person plural is used in 16:17, but is immediately switched to third person when the Philippians make their accusation against the missionaries on the basis of their race.
Vic said:
No, read the verse real carefully and see if a morning interpretation actually fits. It doesn't to me. I doubt Paul preached the whole day away, a day that would otherwise be better spent traveling, during daylight.
Acts 20:7 On the first day
29 of the week, when we met
30 to break bread, Paul began to speak
31 to the people, and because he intended
32 to leave the next day, he extended
33 his message until midnight.
29: On the first day. This is the first mention of a Sunday gathering (1 Cor 16:2).
30: Or “assembled.â€Â
31: The verb διαλέγομαι (dialegomai) is frequently used of Paul addressing Jews in the synagogue. As G. Schrenk (TDNT 2:94-95) points out, “What is at issue is the address which any qualified member of a synagogue might give.†Other examples of this may be found in the NT in Matt 4:23 and Mark 1:21. In the context of a Christian gathering, it is preferable to translate διελέγετο (dielegeto) simply as “speak†here. The imperfect verb διελέγετο has been translated as an ingressive imperfect.
32: 1.c.γ has “denoting an intended action: intend, propose, have in mind…Ac 17:31; 20:3, 7, 13ab; 23:15; 26:2; 27:30.â€Â
33: Or “prolonged.â€Â
Vic said:
Luke was Jewish and wrote from a Jewish perspective, did he not? What difference would it make to a group of Jewish converts which city they were in, in regards to their calendar? Whenever a Jew, especially in the first century, spoke of the first day, they are referring to the day following the sabbath, which ended at sunset.
Yes, I’d agree about the Jewish perspective to a degree, but Luke wasn’t a Jew. He may have had Jewish influence, but he wasn’t a Jew. Also, if we want to get real confused, let’s look at who the letter was written to. It was written to Theophilus. Now, there’s a bunny trail. I’ll lean toward Theophilus being a Gentile. All this (plus much more) leads me to believe that Acts 20:7 is directed at what we Gentiles call Sunday.
Vic said:
Roman customs hadn't fully infiltrated all of the known world at that time and I doubt if the Jews were obligated to keep their calendar. The notion of calling the first century 1 AD didn't not even happen for a few hundred years after His birth.
Ok. I’m not up on that, but your trustworthy.
Vic said:
We have lost touch with our Hebrew roots. If Rome didn't have such a stranglehold on much of what we do, we would probably still be using the Hebrew calendar. Besides, it is more inline with the calendar God instituted.
I checked out that link you gave me a long time ago on the calendar and it’s pretty cool. I’m not going to pretend I understand it though.
One thing that I found while studying Leviticus was in chapter 23:9-14. I want to do some more study in this area (Pentecost) because here is where the offering of the first fruits is mentioned. I don’t have the NT verse handy (it’s in my bible in another location currently), but I believe it is Paul? That calls Jesus the First Fruits. I think it’s in 1 cor. What caught my eye, was that it was to be waved the day after the Sabbath. This would be our Sunday Morning and would seem to support a Sunday AM resurrection.
I think you know that I enjoy this subject as it relates to the Lord’s Supper. Luke was the Author of Acts, as well as the book of Luke. Therefore, his language transfers as far as hermeneutics are concerned. Luke’s account of Christ instituting the Lord’s supper is very specific. Luke 22. Christ “Broke Bread†and said, “THIS†is my Body. “This†referring to the bread. You are correct, bread was very common to the people. Jesus also referred to himself as the bread of life. But notice how he says that he would not partake of
it again until
it was fulfilled in the kingdom of God. Now, look at Luke 24. First, Jesus is “Revealedâ€Âhen the bread is “BROKEâ€Â. Though a common meal, there was nothing common about either of the meals in which the bread was broke when viewed through hermeneutics. It has become my conclusion that the “Breaking of Bread†took on a new dimension and Luke uses this dimension throughout his writings as evident in both Acts 2:46 and Acts 20:7
Sorry for the long one here… Hey, I really did try to keep it short.