The Biblical Timeline Backbone - 37 Events from Creation to New Jerusalem

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Concerning the 2,000 years between the resurrection of Christ and the tribulation. Is there another/better explanation for the prophecy of Hosea 5:15-6:2 ?
Yes: it likely refers to just a relatively short period before the restoration of Israel and Judah if they "return to the LORD." It could also refer to the resurrection of Jesus as a literal three days. It's a little hard to see how it could refer to a period beginning about 800 years after the prophecy was given, when it is a call to return now to God.
 
Concerning the resurrection of Jesus, Judah and Ephraim were not revived, raised up, or living in His sight.
It is more closely related to the restoration of Israel and Judah. The tribulation will be the time of their reviving, which ends with their calling on the Lord and His return to deliver them.

So, it appears that your conclusion is closely related to the 2,000 year prophecy after all.

This can also be realized through a proper interpretation of 'time, times and an half' from Daniel 12:6-7.
An explanation of that can be found here:

https://7049biblicaltimelineresearch.org > Articles > Reconsidering Daniel 12:6-7
 
The timeline is posted at:

https://7049biblicaltimelineresearch.org > Biblical Timelines

Completely open excel file(s) that you can modify however you like. The year cells contain notes which have the scripture references which the running calculations are based on.

The hope is that you'll go to the scriptures to see if these things are true. Let God's word be the judge.

Waiting for you to post God’s word about your timeline so we can judge it to be authentic or not.
 
What disbelief? What spiritualizing? I'm just being rational based on a plain reading and understanding of the text.
The plain reading and understanding of the text is "one day with the Lord for a thousand year", "simile" is your own opinion due to your disbelief in that plain reading and understanding.
 
The plain reading and understanding of the text is "one day with the Lord for a thousand year", "simile" is your own opinion due to your disbelief in that plain reading and understanding.
Nope. You're still avoiding the other obvious problem in Psa. 90:4.
 
No I'm not, yesterday past is one day, a watch in the night is another way to put it, that much is obvious.
That makes no sense whatsoever. To say “or as tomorrow which will come” or “or as one day,” are other ways “to put it.” But, absolutely not “or as a watch in the night.” One is 24 hours, one is about 4 hours. One of them contradicts your position and therefore cannot be just “another way to put it.” And both are similes—they’re figures of speech, not equations.
 
Waiting for you to post God’s word about your timeline so we can judge it to be authentic or not.
I'm sure that you have a copy of the Bible, and the website has a copy of the scriptural timeline. Please, pray James 1:5 and compare. Let the Lord be our source of knowledge, understanding and wisdom.
 
I'm sure that you have a copy of the Bible, and the website has a copy of the scriptural timeline. Please, pray James 1:5 and compare. Let the Lord be our source of knowledge, understanding and wisdom.

If you have a scripture with a timeline that somehow leads us to understand that we are in the year 6031 then please share it.
 
As I said before, all of the scriptural references are given in the timeline at
https://7049biblicaltimelineresearch.org > Biblical Timelines
You simply need to follow along in scripture, as you read, and make note of the years in which the events occur.

Also, I didn't say that we are in the year 6031. The current Biblical year would be 6025, with the Tribulation beginning in the year 6031.
 
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That makes no sense whatsoever. To say “or as tomorrow which will come” or “or as one day,” are other ways “to put it.” But, absolutely not “or as a watch in the night.” One is 24 hours, one is about 4 hours. One of them contradicts your position and therefore cannot be just “another way to put it.” And both are similes—they’re figures of speech, not equations.
What makes no sense is your dismissal of God's equation as "simile" and your arrogant attitude in defense of your error. That's your private interpretation which the bible forbids.

knowing this first, that no prophecy of Scripture is of any private interpretation, for prophecy never came by the will of man, but holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit. (2 Pt. 1:20-21)
 
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What makes no sense is your dismissal of God's equation as "simile"
Do you know what a simile is? It’s a phrase that compares two things using “like” or “as.”

Psa 90:4 For a thousand years in your sight are but as yesterday when it is past, or as a watch in the night. (ESV)

Notice that “a thousand years” are being compared to “yesterday when it is past” and “a watch in the night,” both using “as.”

Those are, by definition, similes. Notice that it does not say, “For a thousand years in your sight are but yesterday when it is past, or a watch in the night.”

2Pe 3:8 But do not overlook this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. (ESV)

Once again, the comparison with “a thousand years” and “one day” is made using “as,” twice. Again, both similes, by definition.

And, again, notice that the verse does not say “But do not overlook this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is a thousand years, and a thousand years one day.”

and your arrogant attitude in defense of your error.
I’m simply giving an understanding based on plain readings of Scripture. You are the one saying I am in error all the while not addressing the clear figures of speech, the evidence of which are supported by the contexts. I gave the contexts, which are clearly speaking of the fact that God’s relationship to time is simply different than ours. The interpretation I gave actually makes sense of the two different times given in Psa. 90:4.

So, you have shown no context, ignored the use of “as,” and still haven’t addressed the problem for your position with Psa. 90:4 using both one day and a night watch as comparisons.

The arrogance is not on my part.

That's your private interpretation which the bible forbids.
No, not my “private interpretation”—the most likely interpretation based on what is plainly stated.
 
Do you know what a simile is? It’s a phrase that compares two things using “like” or “as.”
No, that's a shift of perspective. God is beyond time and space, what is a day to God is a thousand years to man. God is specific and precise especially when it comes to numbers. If it just means eternity, it would say eternity instead of "a thousand years".
I’m simply giving an understanding based on plain readings of Scripture. You are the one saying I am in error all the while not addressing the clear figures of speech, the evidence of which are supported by the contexts. I gave the contexts, which are clearly speaking of the fact that God’s relationship to time is simply different than ours. The interpretation I gave actually makes sense of the two different times given in Psa. 90:4.

So, you have shown no context, ignored the use of “as,” and still haven’t addressed the problem for your position with Psa. 90:4 using both one day and a night watch as comparisons.

The arrogance is not on my part.
No you're not, you reject the plain reading of the text and substitute with your own interpretation. The context is the frailty of man compared to God's eternality, that does not exclude the specificity of a "one day for one thousand years" equation. In the same context, it is written, "the days of our lives are seventy years; and if by reason of strength they are eighty years," (Ps. 90:10), that precisely matches the average life expectancy of 70-80 years; and next, we're taught to number our days and gain wisdom (Ps. 90:12), how are we supposed to do that if any number is just a "figure of speech"?
No, not my “private interpretation”—the most likely interpretation based on what is plainly stated.
What is plainly stated is "one day with the Lord for a thousand years", "simile" is your private interpretation.
 
Yes: it likely refers to just a relatively short period before the restoration of Israel and Judah if they "return to the LORD." It could also refer to the resurrection of Jesus as a literal three days.
No it could not. It says he will raise US up, not himself.
 
No you're not, you reject the plain reading of the text and substitute with your own interpretation.
No, I’m literally providing the text and even bolding the relevant bits that prove my point.

that does not exclude the specificity of a "one day for one thousand years" equation
Please provide one translation that states that.

how are we supposed to do that if any number is just a "figure of speech"?
Straw man. You really don’t understand my argument, do you? Or, is it just that you can’t believe it’s true because it doesn’t fit with other parts of your theology?

Not once have I even remotely implied that ‘any number is just a “figure of speech “.’

What is plainly stated is "one day with the Lord for a thousand years",
Where? Provide one translation that says that.

"simile" is your private interpretation.
No, similes are what are used, as I defined and showed. Perhaps you should read the definition of “simile” again.
 
No, I’m literally providing the text and even bolding the relevant bits that prove my point.
No, you're rejecting the literal meaning of the text.
Please provide one translation that states that.
2 Pt. 3:8, any translation.
Straw man. You really don’t understand my argument, do you? Or, is it just that you can’t believe it’s true because it doesn’t fit with other parts of your theology?
I have no theology of my own, "Millennial Day" is an ancient Jewish belief dating back to the disciple's days
Not once have I even remotely implied that ‘any number is just a “figure of speech “.’
Then how do you know which is a figure of speech and which is not? It's all subjected to your own opinion.
Where? Provide one translation that says that.
Again, 2 Pt. 3:8, any translation. Ps. 90:4 is an OT example for corroboration.
No, similes are what are used, as I defined and showed. Perhaps you should read the definition of “simile” again.
If you disagree, just say so. People disagree on prophecies all the time, that's why prophecy is rarely preached from the putpit. There's no need to be so combative and argumentative.
 
No, you're rejecting the literal meaning of the text.
Again, I quoted the verses and highlighted the relevant bits which support what I said. You have yet to do so and instead only say that I’m “rejecting the literal meaning of the text.” Why is that?

And, what of the problem for your position that Psa. 90:4 presents? Is a thousand years equal to 24 hours or equal to 4 hours? It can’t be both if you’re making an equation out if it. By choosing just 24 hours and ignoring 4, you are, by your own reasoning, rejecting the literal meaning of the text.

2 Pt. 3:8, any translation.
I asked for a translation, not the verse which is what we were already discussing. Feel free to actually post the verse, from any translation. Then show me how it says what you say it says.

I have no theology of my own, "Millennial Day" is an ancient Jewish belief dating back to the disciple's days
Evidence?

Then how do you know which is a figure of speech and which is not? It's all subjected to your own opinion.
I literally gave you the definition of a simile. You can search the Internet and find it yourself if you don’t want to believe me. So, what is it that you don’t understand?

Again, 2 Pt. 3:8, any translation. Ps. 90:4 is an OT example for corroboration.
Again, feel free to actually post the verses and show exactly how they say what you say they do. I have done it, why haven’t you?

If you disagree, just say so. People disagree on prophecies all the time, that's why prophecy is rarely preached from the putpit. There's no need to be so combative and argumentative.
Lol! I’m the one being “so combative and argumentative”? Project much? I’m simply pointing out and trying to get you to understand that these are figures of speech, not equations and so shouldn’t be used as such. I have given support for my position, which you dismiss without actually addressing.
 
Carry_Your_Name and Free,
maybe you two should get a room... or a Post where your discussion is the actual topic.
It's relevant to the topic as several members, including yourself, have made claims about the timing of things based on falsely using figures of speech as equations. It should have been a very quick discussion, but such is life.
 
Concerning the resurrection of Jesus, Judah and Ephraim were not revived, raised up, or living in His sight.
It is more closely related to the restoration of Israel and Judah. The tribulation will be the time of their reviving, which ends with their calling on the Lord and His return to deliver them.

So, it appears that your conclusion is closely related to the 2,000 year prophecy after all.

This can also be realized through a proper interpretation of 'time, times and an half' from Daniel 12:6-7.
An explanation of that can be found here:

https://7049biblicaltimelineresearch.org > Articles > Reconsidering Daniel 12:6-7
Your charts don't actually explain much, they just show dates, which seem to rely on the problematic idea that one thousand years is a day.

The issue still remains with Hosea 5:15-6:2 that it was a call for the Israelites to return to God then, and if they did, he would revive them. But, as you state, they "were not revived, raised up, or living in His sight." What exactly is it about those verses that you think are prophetic, rather than just a call to return to God so that "he may heal us"?