Jesus rejected their false accusation and gave a thorough answer including the fact that the Judges were called "gods" or Elohim because they spoke and administered the word of God.
Where, exactly, does Jesus reject "their false accusation"? What, exactly, is the "false accusation"?
Notice the flow of the argument:
Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but f
or blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.”
Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said,
you are gods’?
Joh 10:35
If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—
Joh 10:36
do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?
Joh 10:37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me;
Joh 10:38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.” (ESV)
So, on the contrary, Jesus affirms what they said. Jesus's argument is that
if even the Judges were called "gods," being humans with God's divine authority to speak and act on his behalf,
how much more is he actually God because he is the Son of God.
Jesus is the human Son of God because God the Father is his father in the begettal/birth process.
Luke 1:34–35 (AV): 34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man? 35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
And, yet, multiple times Jesus claims to have preexisted, even prior to all creation, which is then repeated multiple times by NT writers.
Jesus was of human nature, the same as us:
Hebrews 2:14 (AV): Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
Of course, that is fully affirmed by Trinitarianism. It is worth pointing out here that your three points don't actually address my argument, which was:
'So, when God uses the terms "Father" and "Son," we know what that entails. We know that it is impossible for a son to be of a different nature than his father. Human fathers always have human sons; it simply cannot be otherwise. Therefore, when Jesus calls himself the Son of God or claims that God is his Father, it communicates to us that they are of the same nature.'
You, however, are saying that the Son
is of a different nature than the Father. That, as I said, makes that relationship meaningless to us. We cannot understand what that relationship is. Remember,
we are the analogues to God
, not the other way around. It isn't like the NT writers decided to create the relationship of Father and Son; God revealed himself to us using that relationship for a reason.
He is also the Son of God because by the time of his ministry he fully revealed the character of God. This was achieved through his special birth and his special education.
John 1:14 (AV): And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth
This completely ignores the entire context of John 1:1-18, the whole point of which is to introduce us to the Son of God. Even just four verses prior:
Joh 1:10 He was in the world, and
the world was made through him, yet the world did not know him. (ESV)
Who is "He" and "him"? Clearly Jesus, or better, the Son. When was the world made through him? In verse 3:
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. (ESV)
The logic of verse is that
if "without him was not any thing made that was made,"
then it precludes "him" from being something that was made. That is the only logical conclusion. And,
if he isn't made,
then it necessarily follows that he is God in nature. Again, that is the only logical conclusion. All of that is supported or used to support what was already stated in verses 1 and 2.
I suggest that Jesus is alluding to Abraham's statement based upon the sacrifice of Isaac:
Genesis 22:14 (AV): And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovahjireh: as it is said to this day, In the mount of the LORD it shall be seen.
You can suggest that, but there are numerous suggestions that could be given.
The Pharisees deliberately muddied the waters. You are looking at the muddied waters and prefer to leave it as obscure, rather than understanding what Jesus is saying.
Because there is no certain understanding of when "Abraham rejoiced" and what "my day" refers to. But, as I stated, it is not relevant to the question from the Jews that follows and Jesus's answer. I would rather stick to those things that are clear and we can know, than speculate as to what something means and base the meaning of a text on that.
Jesus is greater than Abraham because he is the Messiah.
Again, Jesus's answer is directed at the question the Jews asked, which is one of chronology and existence. Jesus contrasts Abraham's coming into existence--"was" is
ginomai--with his own eternal, absolute existence.