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The Meaning Of Justified

well for what its worth the the Word APPROVED pin points the action that God made when he said the good sumeritan was JUSTIFIED and the term APPROVED OF helps me pin point the action that God makes when he labels something that which is termed RIGHTEOUS. It just helps me out some times after doing many word studies to narrow down the meanings to an action so that I can better understand what is being said with simplicity.
2Co 1:12 For our rejoicing is this, the testimony of our conscience, that in simplicity and godly sincerity, not with fleshly wisdom, but by the grace of God, we have had our conversation in the world, and more abundantly to you-ward.
Rom 12:8 Or he that exhorteth, on exhortation: he that giveth, let him do it with simplicity
and if all the law can be summed up in the two commandments then. I believe the the

words JUSTIFIED and RIGHTEOUS can be narrowed down GODS APPROVAL

Mat 22:37 Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
Mat 22:38 This is the first and great commandment.
Mat 22:39 And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
Mat 22:40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets
. and if the whole law can hang from those two commandments then I feel that I can hang justified and righteous on the word APPROVAL.
 
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Justified is a legal term, which means; made just. This is in light of the fact that YHWH has a law, and sin is transgression of that law. It's pretty simple.

The Hebrew word, which is equivalent to the Greek, means straight or put on a straight road. This is the biblical foundation of the idea of justification. YHWH has set you on a straight path. And what does the scripture say is the Straight path? Following our Lord (Is. 45:2-3) If we follow Him, he will make the way straight, He will forge the way ahead of us. In fact, the Hebrew word is tsadaq and is made from the root glyphs of tsade, dalet and quph. What is interesting is that you can go to the ancient Hebrew glyphs (little pictures that have meaning) and determine what is in mind with the word. The center letter dalet, is the main idea of in the root of a word. Hebrew root word usually will have three glyphs. The dalet is a picture of a door, something you pass through. The tsade, is a little picture of a journey or path you would follow. And the quph represents a circle or time.

If you put these ideas together, you'll get a picture of what the Hebrew writers of the scripture had in mind when they use the word justified. When you are justified, an act of God, you enter through a door to start on a journey through time. The Hebrews didn't think of time as we do, in a linear fashion or in a time-line. They thought of time in cycles, in circles, that would complete and finish a cycle. If a person is justified, they will set out on a journey of following YHWH's way and complete the journey or cycle at some time future when the circiut has completed. But the idea is that we enter through a door to follow Him on this journey.

This is also the idea in Covenant Theology (Reformed Theology), justification is a legal act in light of the covenant. If you are justified, then you are put on a path of obedience to follow YHWH and His way. Yahshua (Jesus) is our example, as He followed YHWH's way without fault. He became our example of the righteous life as one who never transgressed His Father's law.

Blessings.

Jesus is YHWH.

That is what the New Testament reveals.

Without acknowledging Jesus as Lord, you will not be saved, declared righteous, or made to be Justified!

No amount of trying to keep the Law will change that.


JLB
 
Well..., it depends upon what you are approved to do. Are you using "justified" and "approved" as synonyms? Remember that justification is a legal term and is used to mean that a person is put into a different category than he was prior.

Of course,... I do mean it in a legal since being that God is the supreme judge and able to approve according to his will and by that I also mean approval to continue in his grace and righteousness/approval
 
Jesus is YHWH. That is what the New Testament reveals. Without acknowledging Jesus as Lord, you will not be saved, declared righteous, or made to be Justified! No amount of trying to keep the Law will change that.

No disagreement there Jesus is our intercessor/" LAWYER as it where" continually standing between us and GOD and if it were not for his request our presence with God would not be possible
 
Very well said Edward. I will add the idea of Maturity to the equation. To who much is given much is expected, if you will. God expects more faithfulness and cooperation from those who have had more time to learn the ways of the Spirit, as well as He must determine who has been exposed to a more quality teaching of these matters. God does this effortlessly, as He judges each of us with righteous Judgement. He gives us His Spirit, for it is God working in us to both will and do His good pleasure. Our part is to stay yielded to His Spirit, to His leading's, to His Love. For love covers a multitude of sins.

Re: The Meaning Of Justified

I would like to add that even through out a mature walk in the spirit the devil has his ambushes cut out for us. And sometimes God allows the attack to take place. It is my understanding that God is responsible for allowing much more calamity than people actually give him credit for. the book of Job for instance is one of the main proofs of that.
Pro 16:2 All the ways of a man are clean in his own eyes; but the LORD weigheth the spirits.
Pro 16:3 Commit thy works unto the LORD, and thy thoughts shall be established.
Pro 16:4 The LORD hath made all things for himself: yea, even the wicked for the day of evil.
Pro 16:5 Every one that is proud in heart is an abomination to the LORD: though hand join in hand, he shall not be unpunished.
Pro 16:6 By mercy and truth iniquity is purged: and by the fear of the LORD men depart from evil.
Pro 16:7 When a man's ways please the LORD, he maketh even his enemies to be at peace with him.

Now I'm not saying that God is doing the calamity he is allowing it to take place, in every cases specifically for his purpose, whether it be for the good or for the bad. And mostly calamity is a product of our own doing.

Now with that much being said, it is my understanding that the word {JUSTIFIED} as deemed by God,.. is fixed to the word {RIGHTEOUS} or righteousness. meaning that only God is able APPROVE of the ways of the heart or the spirits as the scripture calls it.
He is the only one able to make sound and calculated approval of every individual situation because he knows exactly how much of any element he has put into the equation............... for example ..........{ refer to post 305-309 }
 
[1] No. We will have free will unto death of the flesh, (at least). The idea being to walk in the spirit, to be an overcomer, to continue to reject the ways of the flesh and not give in to the lusts of the flesh. [2] Yes, we have to choose (free will) to obey His commandments and continue to live for the spirit. God's grace and mercy knows no bounds and since our members are wrought with sin we will at times even inadvertently sin, however, the Lord will not be very nitpicking and cast you out for minor offenses, yet he will not be mocked! One can not think, oh I'll go ahead and sin tonight and ask forgiveness tomorrow so I can have some fun tonight. God doesn't play those games so we must in fear and trembling and contriteness of heart do our honest best to obey and set aside the desires of the flesh and obey and live for the spirit. [3] Absolutely yes, we must cooperate with Gods grace and commandments, otherwise we would be living for the flesh and one can not serve two masters.

The fear of the lord is what allows us to submit our faulty judgments and miss takes to God for forgiveness sake
Psa 130:3 If thou, LORD, shouldest mark iniquities, O Lord, who shall stand?
Psa 130:4 But there is forgiveness with thee, that thou mayest be feared.
Psa 130:5 I wait for the LORD, my soul doth wait, and in his word do I hope.

The more I live on the more I realize how much I dont really know about what is going on simply because there are invisable things, invisable forces and after all who can know the mind of God and his ways. We are all like little children to him we have no idea what is actually taking place behind that foggy glass we only dimly see silhouettes and shapes. It is humbling to sit in meditation and consider that with out Gods provisions and spiritual guidence there is absolutly no way that I could ever accomplish my obligation with my free will decisions, And it brings me deeper in love with my creator knowing that he does not hold me to debt for all my miss takes as long as I fear his absence and in fear his judgement and seek his { APPROVAL }
 
Jesus is YHWH.

Well..., He is the Son of YHWH. YHWH in the flesh. No doubt.

That is what the New Testament reveals.

Without acknowledging Jesus as Lord, you will not be saved, declared righteous, or made to be Justified!

No amount of trying to keep the Law will change that.

I agree, we are not justified by keeping the law. We are justified by grace through faith, and that not of ourselves.
 
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Well..., it depends upon what you are approved to do. Are you using "justified" and "approved" as synonyms? Remember that justification is a legal term and is used to mean that a person is put into a different category than he was prior.

Of course,... I do mean it in a legal since being that God is the supreme judge and able to approve according to his will and by that I also mean approval to continue in his grace and righteousness/approval

I see nothing wrong with this. The problem comes when we use terms to define scripture to fit our presupposition. You probably agree with that.
 
The problem comes when we use terms to define scripture to fit our presupposition. You probably agree with that.

well for what its worth the the Word APPROVED pin points the action that God made when he said the good sumeritan was JUSTIFIED and the term APPROVED OF helps me pin point the action that God makes when he labels something that which is termed RIGHTEOUS. It just helps me out some times after doing many word studies to narrow down the meanings to an action so that I can better understand what is being said with simplicity.
2Co 1:12 For our rejoicing is this, the testimony of our conscience, that in simplicity and godly sincerity, not with fleshly wisdom, but by the grace of God, we have had our conversation in the world, and more abundantly to you-ward.
Rom 12:8 Or he that exhorteth, on exhortation: he that giveth, let him do it with simplicity
and if all the law can be summed up in the two commandments then. I believe the the

words JUSTIFIED and RIGHTEOUS can be narrowed down GODS APPROVAL

Mat 22:37 Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
Mat 22:38 This is the first and great commandment.
Mat 22:39 And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
Mat 22:40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets
. and if the whole law can hang from those two commandments then I feel that I can hang justified and righteous on the word APPROVAL.
 
The problem comes when we use terms to define scripture to fit our presupposition. You probably agree with that.

but when translaters that copied your bible into english from other tongues use the words they feel best represent the meaning then it should be our obligation to check those meanings and as the Berians did. Searching them diligently to compare scripture with scripture to better understand what exactly the word is saying to you and not so much what it said to them.
I'm not trying to suggest that we do away with the words justified or righteous,.. But only to find a common meaning between the two so as to better understand the meaning of each
In my opinion they pretty much mean the same thing. To be Justified by God is to be Righteous,.. which means God APPROVES of that witch is JUST and that witch is RIGHTEOUS. both words derive from the idea that Gods has chosen to agree with them according to his will,... there for he APPROVED them JUSTICE and RIGHTEOUSNESS
 
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The problem comes when we use terms to define scripture to fit our presupposition. You probably agree with that.

but when translaters that copied your bible into english from other tongues use the words they feel best represent the meaning then it should be our obligation to check those meanings and as the Berians did. Searching them diligently to compare scripture with scripture to better understand what exactly the word is saying to you and not so much what it said to them.
I'm not trying to suggest that we do away with the words justified or righteous,.. But only to find a common meaning between the two so as to better understand the meaning of each
In my opinion they pretty much mean the same thing. To be Justified by God is to be Righteous,.. which means God APPROVES of that witch is JUST and that witch is RIGHTEOUS. both words derive from the idea that Gods has chosen to agree with them according to his will,... there for he APPROVED them JUSTICE and RIGHTEOUSNESS

The problem with this is that the Neophyte places himself in a position that he should not be in. I agree, we are to search scripture and compare scripture with scripture, but when you make words synonymous that shouldn't be, then trouble comes from that. I also agree that translators often put theology ahead of translation, and all translations have an element of this. But, with that said, the area of text criticism and translation is a field of study that does not belong to those that aren't qualified.

Righteous (diakaios) and justified (diakaioo) are not synonymous, although, I think this is what you are pointing out, they have the same root meaning. One is the action of making one righteous and the other is the result of that action. In your case, you are defining the root as approve. Personally, I would see the commonality in the root word as justice rather than approval.
 
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Justified means NO condemnation. OK, from this point on we all have free will to follow on or not to do so. This is what it is ALL about!
Will 'i' follow Christ God to FULL Maturity?

Now enter the James 1:15 verse & 1 John 5:16-17.

And this is only for the person who has made the decision to FOLLOW Christ! Acts 5:32

--Elijah
 
Righteous (diakaios) and justified (diakaioo) are not synonymous, although, I think this is what you are pointing out, they have the same root meaning. One is the action of making one righteous and the other is the result of that action. In your case, you are defining the root as approve. Personally, I would see the commonality in the root word as justice rather than approval.

So I have learned to automaticly associate the words RIGHTEOUS and JUSTIFIED with the word APPROVED. it just helps me make better since of the usage of either of those words, because God is the judge of that which is JUST and only he can APPROVE anything to be JUST it is our duty to recognize the things that he decrees and agree with our creator.
You got it brother thats all im trying to do is point out how it helps me to make better since of the word JUSTIFIED. Because like the word RIGHTEOUS it is attached to a longer thread of meaning which is the same root meaning of JUSTIFIED that is by GODS APPROVAL. Like I said it has really helped me to view this in that way because the root meaning is SIMPLE. It allows me to view the very act by GOD to JUSTIFY or to make RIGHTEOUS.........
that is for GOD to... APPROVE OF.

To make it simple for the Neophyte/New Christian or the Old Christain to make better since of this term.
 
But, with that said, the area of text criticism and translation is a field of study that does not belong to those that aren't qualified.


I feel that you might be doing an injustice every Neophyte/ new christian by disqualifying him or her from being able to do their own word studies.
I'm not trying be rash but as for me,..... I disagree with that.
I do however understand how you could feel that way.
But if one is truly led by the Holy Spirit then I honestly dont think they have anything to worry about as long as they have some type of guidance whether that of a brother or of the Holy Spirit.
I do feel like no matter how much experience the new believer has he or she is,..... approved of by God or justifiably able to study the bible that means word studies along with every other type of bible study

No pun intended brother
 
James 2 has no comparison between the person who apostatized and the person who has true faith. It is a contrast between the person who has a dead faith (one that does not save) and a person with true faith. The person with the dead faith cannot apostatize because he does not have true saving faith.

So then, yes, I would not see the two statements as mutually exclusive. The person with true faith (one whom the Spirit has regenerated them) has no desire to apostatize. The person with dead faith (unregenerate) cannot apostatize because he began as apostate even though he was within the institutional Church.

Dadof10, this is not meant to be derogatory in any way, and is not in the least an expression of frustration. I sincerely wonder if you do not have a blind side in your theology here because as a Roman Catholic you think of initial justification of all those brought into the Church. On the other hand, from your perspective, you might think I have a blind side to my theology because I do not think in terms of initial justification. The person in 1 John 2:19 that I mention below was a part of the institutional Church and if he were Roman Catholic, even thought he would be baptized, the text of 1John 1:19 says "he was never of us." In other words, the ceremony of Baptism did not justify or save him. So then, that person in 1 John 2:19 and the person who has a "dead faith" in James 2 cannot apostatize because their starting point is not salvation with a dead faith.



It is also not rare for some who show this faith, to revert back to their previous lives. Some people take years, others months, but there are those who perform all the "works" I listed above (and then some) then, after a certain amount time has past, revert to apathy, or worse, atheism.

To put it another way, most of the backsliders who "saved" Christians would consider "never really saved...", have, in the past, "showed" or PROVED they really were saved and simply lost this salvation.

I would just like to get some thoughts from those who hold this interpretation of James and OSAS. How can you reconcile a "shown to be righteous" interpretation of James 2 and the fact that some of the people who do show it, backslide?
Dadof10, I too have meet some of these people you mention who might say "I was once saved." Not long ago, there was a young girl in the office where I work. She went to Bible College, wanted to be a youth pastor, then after months or years, she fell away. She would have agreed with you that she was once saved. Yet when I discussed biblical, theological, and spiritual things, I would get these replies that demonstrated that she really did not understand the basic teachings of Christianity and God's grace.

I recognize that some of what we are saying here neither of us can prove. It is anecdotal. I am sure neither of us want to settle things on an anecdotal basis, but on the basis of scriptural exegesis. However, even youth pastors, protestant clergy (and Catholic priests), and many others who might look great in the faith will fall because they were never really of us. They started from the wrong point. If you start from the wrong point, 100% will fall. There was never really a chance in the first place. As they would say in OSAS, "they were never really saved."

So then the question is not, did they fall, but the question is did they start from a correct starting point. When James compares the person with a dead faith with the person with a true faith, how can you demonstrate from the context that the person with the dead faith ever had a correct starting point of true faith?

Again, I recognize that you will want to think in terms of initial justification, or some anecdotal situation, but we are doing exegesis of James 2, right?

If I can ask a question here, when James was speaking of the dead faith, was the person with the dead faith fellowshipping in a congregation in the early Church or not?
Yes, I think so. He starts out by calling them "brothers".

Was the term "brothers" for those of a dead faith and he was making a statement with theological intent, saying they were saved? Or on the other hand, was he just making a generic statement to his readers? Was he speaking of the readers as his brother, or the person with dead faith?

I am going to admit something to the shame of protestants. I hope this is not seen as too negative by some, or too shocking. Some people have drifted through some of the protestant Churches I have been in and they sound as Pelagian as can be. Some of these can be so far off the understanding of God's Grace that they cannot be considered real protestants. I am dead serious that they sound unOrthodox with their Pelagian theology. Some of these people get involved for a while, they look really good, and then they leave Church and some go to a different Church, some do not go to a Church at all. They might produce something that might even look like good works for a while. They might deceive some in the congregation that they are good Christian's on fire. When some of these people fall away, I am not shocked. Of course some of them go on, learn truth, and increasingly serve God.

I think of the parable of the seeds. Some of the seed grows for a time, but it does not take root.
Do these people "show" their true faith, in your opinion?
Hmmm, I can see that on an Anecdotal basis some people might think that they did some of the works that demonstrate a true faith. On the other hand, I would continue to disagree that they were the works which demonstrate a true faith.

I might be making an extreme illustration that is not realistic, but I hope it demonstrates the point. Lets say a Mormon (the most polytheistic religion known to man) came into your congregation. They believe in polytheism, have a completely pelagian theology, and from the beginning believe every unorthodox and heretical position known in the history of Christianity. Not one ounce of Orthodoxy. Then some priest baptizes them, (or some protestant preacher) and they begin to help the elderly, and do a few nice things. No will you accept this as true faith and their works as demonstrating their true faith? I know some Mormons. some Mormons are really nice people and do some really nice things. Can we throw a little water on one of them, and then quickly say they are saved, but then when the change their minds and leave the Catholic (or Baptist) Church can we say they lost their salvation? They never changed their minds on their polytheism or pelagianism, they believed those things all along. They just got baptized and did a few nice things and then a year or two later they left the Church.

Let me add that I see testimony's of people that leave my own faith and then go into all sorts of religions. Yet I have yet to meet one of these people that leave, that can properly represent the doctrines that we believe. They try, but badly misrepresent what my church believes.




I should make an effort to come back and see if you reply. I will not have time in the next week, and may loose this post in the shuffle. Good talking with you. Later.
You to. I really hope you can find the time to come back. I really enjoy your insights, even though I disagree with a lot of them. ;) I'm running out of time lately myself. I'll respond when I can. Nice talking to you too, chap...:)

Well, I came back briefly just too look and see if you made a reply. Take that as a compliment... : ). I have to go again now, my lunch break at work has been over.

Mondar, you don't seem to have much time lately, and neither do I. There are a few points I wish I could touch on in this post (like the Catholic, Mormon baptism), but they are off topic. Let me see if I can boil it down to the relevant points of the OP. I really look forward to your input.

I think you're misunderstanding the point here. I don't look at this issue as a Catholic thing, nor do I think we are doing an exegesis of James 2 (you and I already did that). The only point I want to draw from James 2 is that the word "justify" there means "shown to be righteous". James says "I, by my deeds, will show you my faith". If you think "justify" in James 2 means "shown..." then it's obviously possible for a person to show that he HAS true, justifying faith to other people ("I...will show YOU..."). This person shows what he has inside him, namely righteousness. He has proved that he is justified.

Now, if you agree with the above, and I think you do, then IF a person who has "shown" his righteousness ever apostacizes, you can't say "he was never justified in the first place", because this person has SHOWN that he was. The only other option is that the person had true faith (as evidenced by his works) and lost it. The next logical point, which has been raised a few times here, is what does it look like? We are not infallible "judges". When does the person hit the goal of "showing"? Where is the threshold and when is it crossed? Frankly, I don't know. All I know from reading James 2 and interpreting "justify" as "shown to be righteous" is that it's possible, not only possible, but EXPECTED. We are EXPECTED to have the "kind" of faith that shows itself through works. As I've said before, it's like what that SCOTUS said on the subject of porn. I can't define it, but I know it when I see it. I can't infallibly tell, but it CAN be quite evident by a person's "works".

These are the main points, and I don't think you can logically hold to your definition of "justified" in James 2 and OSAS at the same time. One has to go.
 
Mondar, you don't seem to have much time lately, and neither do I. There are a few points I wish I could touch on in this post (like the Catholic, Mormon baptism), but they are off topic. Let me see if I can boil it down to the relevant points of the OP. I really look forward to your input.

I think you're misunderstanding the point here. I don't look at this issue as a Catholic thing, nor do I think we are doing an exegesis of James 2 (you and I already did that). The only point I want to draw from James 2 is that the word "justify" there means "shown to be righteous". James says "I, by my deeds, will show you my faith". If you think "justify" in James 2 means "shown..." then it's obviously possible for a person to show that he HAS true, justifying faith to other people ("I...will show YOU..."). This person shows what he has inside him, namely righteousness. He has proved that he is justified.

Now, if you agree with the above, and I think you do, then IF a person who has "shown" his righteousness ever apostacizes, you can't say "he was never justified in the first place", because this person has SHOWN that he was. The only other option is that the person had true faith (as evidenced by his works) and lost it. The next logical point, which has been raised a few times here, is what does it look like? We are not infallible "judges". When does the person hit the goal of "showing"? Where is the threshold and when is it crossed? Frankly, I don't know. All I know from reading James 2 and interpreting "justify" as "shown to be righteous" is that it's possible, not only possible, but EXPECTED. We are EXPECTED to have the "kind" of faith that shows itself through works. As I've said before, it's like what that SCOTUS said on the subject of porn. I can't define it, but I know it when I see it. I can't infallibly tell, but it CAN be quite evident by a person's "works".

These are the main points, and I don't think you can logically hold to your definition of "justified" in James 2 and OSAS at the same time. One has to go.

OK, maybe we should back up (as you are doing). Concerning the definition of the greek term "justify" (verb and noun forms).... It seems to me to be a slight deviation when you say "shown to be righteous." Also, I do not think that fits the meaning of the statement in James 2:24. The term is related to "just" or "justice." Of course that is the same root. To be just in the sense that you are declared to be just or righteous by the judge.

In James 2:24 it is not the person being declared just, but the persons faith. Thus the term in James 2:24 does not bear upon the doctrine of sola fide directly. The justification taking place in James 2:24 is that a persons claim "I have faith" is being justified, or made just by his works.

So then, it is not the person being "shown to be righteous" but rather it is the person claim "I have faith" that is being declared correct, or just, or righteous.

Of course the term is also used in James 2:25. The term in 2:25 is saying that Rahabs works of receiving the messengers and sending them out another way, justifies. Now that might appear to be sola works (a real pelagian heresy). I do not think that is the case because of the context. Because the context of verses 14 to 18 (and especially verse 18) are centered around the question of who has a dead faith and who has true faith, the author is saying that it is Rahab's works of protecting the spies that the judge uses to declare her faith to be a true faith. It would be the same as the hypothetical person in verses 15-16 who give the brother the things needed (food and shelter).

Of course the term is also used in 2:21 to speak of Abraham when he obeyed God with Isaac. That is an interesting one. It was in Genesis 15:6 that Abraham was justified. Why then does James use Genesis 22? You might want to say that Abraham lost his justification in Chapter 16 and then regained it. But then why would Paul quote Chapter 15 so many times to refer to his justification. No, James is using Genesis 22 in the sense that the judge can pronounce Abraham's faith as a true faith in that text. Abrahams claim (as in James 2:18) I have faith is then declared correct, righteous, just, in Genesis 22.

Now the question comes, are we saying the same thing, or something different. This whole thing could be merely semantical, I am not sure. Do we have a substantial difference of opinion here?
 
[MENTION=4317]mondar[/MENTION] imo, this is a most excellent post #343. The best explanation, I've seen. Thank you, for taking the time.
 
OK, maybe we should back up (as you are doing). Concerning the definition of the greek term "justify" (verb and noun forms).... It seems to me to be a slight deviation when you say "shown to be righteous." Also, I do not think that fits the meaning of the statement in James 2:24. The term is related to "just" or "justice." Of course that is the same root. To be just in the sense that you are declared to be just or righteous by the judge.

In James 2:24 it is not the person being declared just, but the persons faith. Thus the term in James 2:24 does not bear upon the doctrine of sola fide directly. The justification taking place in James 2:24 is that a persons claim "I have faith" is being justified, or made just by his works.

I don't see this, Mondar. In both cases, (Abraham and Rahab) James says THEY were justified, not "their faith". Where is Scripture do we see anyone's faith being "declared just"?
So then, it is not the person being "shown to be righteous" but rather it is the person claim "I have faith" that is being declared correct, or just, or righteous.
Nice try. ;) "declared correct, or just, or righteous"? I don't see "declared correct" in the definition of "justified".

Of course the term is also used in James 2:25. The term in 2:25 is saying that Rahabs works of receiving the messengers and sending them out another way, justifies.
Justifies HER or her faith? Shows HER to be righteous, actually HAVE righteousness (by faith, of course), or show her declaration of faith to be a righteous declaration?

"And in the same way was not also Rahab the harlot justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out another way?"

It seems like the former as there is no mention of a declaration here, or in the example of Abraham.


Now that might appear to be sola works (a real pelagian heresy).
Why "sola" works? Why not faith and works together, like the example of Abraham says?

I do not think that is the case because of the context. Because the context of verses 14 to 18 (and especially verse 18) are centered around the question of who has a dead faith and who has true faith, the author is saying that it is Rahab's works of protecting the spies that the judge uses to declare her faith to be a true faith. It would be the same as the hypothetical person in verses 15-16 who give the brother the things needed (food and shelter).
Here, it seems like we are saying the same thing. Her works show her faith to be a true faith. What she HAS is a true faith, it's not a "said faith".
Of course the term is also used in 2:21 to speak of Abraham when he obeyed God with Isaac. That is an interesting one. It was in Genesis 15:6 that Abraham was justified. Why then does James use Genesis 22? You might want to say that Abraham lost his justification in Chapter 16 and then regained it.
Yes, I would. I would also say he was justified in Chapter 12, and rejustified in Chapter 15, proving that justification is a process, but that's another thread...

But then why would Paul quote Chapter 15 so many times to refer to his justification.
Because it actually uses the word "righteous" in the text of Gen 15, probably, and that was Paul's point.

No, James is using Genesis 22 in the sense that the judge can pronounce Abraham's faith as a true faith in that text. Abrahams claim (as in James 2:18) I have faith is then declared correct, righteous, just, in Genesis 22.
OK. Does Abraham actually posses "true faith" here or not? If he does, where do we disagree? My point is that Abraham actually possesses "true faith" and demonstrates this faith by obedience to God. Do you disagree?

Now the question comes, are we saying the same thing, or something different. This whole thing could be merely semantical, I am not sure. Do we have a substantial difference of opinion here?
I don't know. It depends on your answer to the question "Does Abraham actually posses "true faith" here or not?" My answer is "yes". If a person displays his "true faith", as Abraham and Rahab did, and it's something they actually posses, how can it ever be said they "were never justified to begin with"? If WE are to have this same kind of faith, the kind that "shows" itself to be "true" by works, how can it ever be said (IF we apostacize), "they were never justified to begin with"? It MUST be that they HAD true faith (demonstrated by their works), but lost it.
 
Of course,... I do mean it in a legal since being that God is the supreme judge and able to approve according to his will and by that I also mean approval to continue in his grace and righteousness/approval


Personally, I have no problem with this. :thumbsup
 
I don't see this, Mondar. In both cases, (Abraham and Rahab) James says THEY were justified, not "their faith". Where is Scripture do we see anyone's faith being "declared just"?
Nice try. ;) "declared correct, or just, or righteous"? I don't see "declared correct" in the definition of "justified".

Justifies HER or her faith? Shows HER to be righteous, actually HAVE righteousness (by faith, of course), or show her declaration of faith to be a righteous declaration?

"And in the same way was not also Rahab the harlot justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out another way?"

It seems like the former as there is no mention of a declaration here, or in the example of Abraham.


Now that might appear to be sola works (a real pelagian heresy).
Why "sola" works? Why not faith and works together, like the example of Abraham says?

I do not think that is the case because of the context. Because the context of verses 14 to 18 (and especially verse 18) are centered around the question of who has a dead faith and who has true faith, the author is saying that it is Rahab's works of protecting the spies that the judge uses to declare her faith to be a true faith. It would be the same as the hypothetical person in verses 15-16 who give the brother the things needed (food and shelter).
Here, it seems like we are saying the same thing. Her works show her faith to be a true faith. What she HAS is a true faith, it's not a "said faith".
Of course the term is also used in 2:21 to speak of Abraham when he obeyed God with Isaac. That is an interesting one. It was in Genesis 15:6 that Abraham was justified. Why then does James use Genesis 22? You might want to say that Abraham lost his justification in Chapter 16 and then regained it.
Yes, I would. I would also say he was justified in Chapter 12, and rejustified in Chapter 15, proving that justification is a process, but that's another thread...

But then why would Paul quote Chapter 15 so many times to refer to his justification.
Because it actually uses the word "righteous" in the text of Gen 15, probably, and that was Paul's point.

No, James is using Genesis 22 in the sense that the judge can pronounce Abraham's faith as a true faith in that text. Abrahams claim (as in James 2:18) I have faith is then declared correct, righteous, just, in Genesis 22.
OK. Does Abraham actually posses "true faith" here or not? If he does, where do we disagree? My point is that Abraham actually possesses "true faith" and demonstrates this faith by obedience to God. Do you disagree?

Now the question comes, are we saying the same thing, or something different. This whole thing could be merely semantical, I am not sure. Do we have a substantial difference of opinion here?
I don't know. It depends on your answer to the question "Does Abraham actually posses "true faith" here or not?" My answer is "yes". If a person displays his "true faith", as Abraham and Rahab did, and it's something they actually posses, how can it ever be said they "were never justified to begin with"? If WE are to have this same kind of faith, the kind that "shows" itself to be "true" by works, how can it ever be said (IF we apostacize), "they were never justified to begin with"? It MUST be that they HAD true faith (demonstrated by their works), but lost it.

I think I see that we still do have a substantial difference. Your proposition is that you see the words faith, works, and justify in the context and therefore we can assume that it is teaching that faith and works justify. I think Romans 4:4-5 is quite clear that works is not a part of justification, but lets stick to the context of James. In James 2, the term “justify†is not being used in reference to the doctrine of justification by faith alone but the term “justify†is being used in a more general sense as I will describe in the next paragraph.

DEFINITIONS
If I say that I am “justified†in claiming to read and write English. I could “justify†my claim because of this very post. Even though I would be justified in that claim, this does not violate the doctrine of justification by faith alone. I am using the term in the sentence above in a general sense. So then, what James is proposing is that a person with a true faith can justify is claim on the basis that he has works. Now a person with a dead faith cannot claim to be justified in his claim that he has faith because he cannot demonstrate it by works.

JAMES 2
18 Yea, a man will say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: show me thy faith apart from thy works, and I by my works will show thee my faith.
Please notice the bolded part. James is saying that a person can fairly claim to have faith when he can demonstrate it by works. His statement here is not a statement on the requirements for justification. What does it take for God to pronounce a person “just.†Faith!! What does it take for a person to show that he has faith? Works!!!

21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, in that he offered up Isaac his son upon the altar?
Notice in verse 21 the word faith does not occur. The person justified in verse 21 is not being justified by faith and works. He is being justified by works. There is no mention of faith in this verse. Now verse 22 talks about it, but lets wait for verse 22 and look at verse 21. When the term “justify†occurs in the verse 21 it talks about the only requirement for justification is works. So then, it would be works alone. This is why I brought up the issue of Pelagius. Actually however, the issue is not the doctrine of justification in verse 21, so it is not Pelagian. The issue is what does it take for a person to justly make the claim, “I have faith.â€

22 Thou seest that faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect;
In this text, notice what is being made perfect (telos--- not sinless perfection). Faith is being made perfect, not the person There is a huge difference, and this is exactly what I am trying to talk about. The issue of the context is not to justify the person as in the doctrine of sola fide, but the term "justify" is being used in a general sense. Works are "justifying" the persons claim "I have faith." (see verse 18). The person in verse 18 that says "I will show you my faith by my works is justified in his claim and in this verse, just like Arbaham, his works make his faith perfect. If it were the person being made perfect, we would be talking about the doctrine of justification. We are talking about the faith being perfect, not the person. In my opinion, this is where you’re making the contextual mistake.

23 and the scripture was fulfilled which saith, And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned unto him for righteousness; and he was called the friend of God.
Two points in this verse. First, the concept of “scripture was fulfilled†is not speaking of a prophecy. James is not using the term “fulfilled†in that way. Genesis 15:6 is not a prophecy. Rather James is saying the Abraham’s faith had a fuller meaning in Genesis 22 when he offered up Isaac. Again, works completes the meaning of the term “faith.†By the way, the word “believed God†is the same root in greek as the word “faith.â€
The second bolded statement tells us what happens to the person with faith. It is imputed, or reckoned as righteousness. If Abraham’s works justified (saved) him, then why would righteousness be imputed or reckoned? So then, righteousness is imputed, but Abraham’s works demonstrated the kind of faith that is necessary to say “I have faith.†Imputed righteousness results in works because the kind of faith required for justification (salvation) is the kind that results in works. This accord’s with the correct order in Abraham’s life. Abraham was justified in Genesis 15, and the resulting works occur in Genesis 22. You have the whole order reversed when you say that works and faith are needed for justification.
I have to go for now, but I hope this is a beginning of a demonstration of the correct exegesis of James 2.
Good talking to you,
Mondar
 
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